SBI Clerk Pre Quiz- Spelling Errors

Directions (1-5): In the following questions, a sentence is given with four highlighted words. Choose the combination of words that mentions the words which are either misspelt or grammatically incorrect or contextually meaningless. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option (e) i.e. “All are correct” as your answer choice.

Q1. When the astronomor (A) looked into the telescope (B), he was shocked(C) by the sight of a star moving in an aberant (D) path.
  A - B
 A - D
 B - C
 C - D
 All are correct

Q2. The begining (A) of the large intestine (B) is marked in many forms by the development of an accesory (C) pouch (D) or diverticulum, the ccum.
 C-D
 A-D
 B-D
 A-C
 All are correct

Q3. When the judge (A) started making arbitary (B) rulings that were not based on law, he was reprimanded (C) by the governar (D).
 B - D
 A - C
 C - D
 A - B
 All are correct

Q4. The buroucracy (A) of the legislative (B) government is delaying the pasage (C) of much needed educational (D) funding.
 B - D
 A - B
 A - C
 C - D
 All are correct

Q5. The tenured (A) economic professors (B) who had taught their orthodox (C) ideas for years did not appreciate (D) questions from the newly hired professor.
 B - D
 A - B
 A - C
 C - D
 All are correct

Q6. In the following questions, choose the option that reflects the correct (precise) spelling of the word.
 Boesiterous
 Boisterous
 Boesterious
 Bositerous
 Boeisterious

Q7. In the following questions, choose the option that reflects the correct (precise) spelling of the word.
 Catarect
 Cetaract
 Cateract
 Catract
 Cataract

Q8. In the following questions, choose the option that reflects the correct (precise) spelling of the word.
 Cessasion
 Cesasion
 Cessation
 Cesation
 Cesaation

Q9. In the following questions, choose the option that reflects the correct (precise) spelling of the word.
 Defoliete
 Diffoliete
 Difoliate
 Defoliate
 Deffoliate

Q10. In the following questions, choose the option that reflects the correct (precise) spelling of the word.
 Dexterous
 Dextterous
 Dexterrious
 Dexterrous
 Dexterious

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting the word which is either misspelt or grammatically incorrect. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option (e) i.e. “all are correct” as your answer choice.

Q11. For my financial/ circumstances, the /optmum loan would need/ to have an interest rate below four percent.

 financial
 circumstances
 optmum
 interest
 No error

Q12. Today's news also brought the suggestion/ that the traditional growing regions/ for fine wines may not be the regions producing / the most salburious wines.
 brought
 traditional
 producing
 salburious
 No error

Q13. The prisoners were all perfectly/ submmisive and paid every /deference to the wishes of those /in whose custody they were placed.
 prisoners
 submmisive
 deference
 custody
 No error

Q14. Sophia was convenced that the / accretion of ice on her car’s windshield / was preventing her / wipers from operating correctly.
 convenced
 accretion
 preventing
 correctly
 No error

Q15. Our landscaper should lower/ his price since he has a rival / in the neighborhood who is /offering us a better deal.
 landscaper
 rival
 neighborhood
 offering
 No error












SOLUTIONS

1.B
2.D
3.A
4.C
5.E
6.A
7.E
8.C
9.D
10.A
11.C
12.D
13.B
14.A
15.E

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Reasoning Quiz For SBI PO 2019

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight students have seated around a circular table in which some are facing towards the centre and some are facing outside the centre. E sits third to the right of D. Only two persons sit between G and B, both are facing same direction. A sits third to the right of the one who sits second to the left of G. F is neither immediate neighbour of G nor B. C sits third to the right of F who sits opposite to H. G is facing same direction as D but opposite to C and A. E sits second to the right of H who is facing same direction as F. B and D faces each other. E faces towards the center.

Q1. Who among the following sits third to the right of A?
 E
 F
 D
 G
 None of these

Q2. Who among the following sits opposite to C?
 B
 E
 H
 A
 None of these

Q3. How many persons sits between D and H, when counting left of D?
 four
 three
 two
 one
 None

Q4. What is the position of B with respect to F?
 Third to the left
 Immediate right
 Second to the right
 Immediate Left
 None of these

Q5. How many persons facing inside?
 One
 Four
 Three
 Two
 None of these

Directions (6-10): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q6. Statements: Some study are not note.
                             All note are article.
                            No article is book.
Conclusions: I. All article are study.
II. Some article are not study.
III. Some article are note is a possibility.
 Only I follows
 Only II follows
 Either I or II follows
 Only III follows
 None follows

Q7. Statements: No Eagle is parrot.
                           Some parrot are goose.
                           Some goose are not swan.
Conclusions: I. Some goose are not Eagle is a possibility.
II. Some parrot are not swan
III. No swan is parrot.
 Only I follows
 Only II and III follow
 Only I and III follow
 None follows
 None of these

Q8. Statements: All Apple are Berry.
                            All Berry are Cherry.
                            No Apple is plum.
Conclusions: I. Some Berry are not plum.
II. Some plum is Cherry.
III. Some Cherry are berry.
 Only I and III follow
 Only II follows
 Only III follows
 All I, II and III follow
 None of these

Q9. Statements: No Almond is cashew.
                            Some raisin are Almond.
                            Some raisin are not walnut.
Conclusions: I. Some raisin are not cashew.
II. Only raisin is walnut is a possibility.
III. Some walnut are not raisin.
 Only I follows
 Only II follows
 Only III
 Only I and II follow
 None of these

Q10. Statements: All pastry are candy.
                              Some pudding are pastry.
                              Some muffin are candy
Conclusions: I. Some Pudding are muffin
II. Some muffin are not Pastry.
III. Some candy are pudding.
 Only I and III follow
 Only II follows
 Only either I or II follow
 Only III follows
 None of these

Q11. Which of the following letter is 2nd to the right of the letter which is 7th from the right end, if each of the alphabets in the word ‘INVESTIGATION’ is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
 O
 S
 I
 G
 N

Q12. What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following series?
AZ, BY, CX, ?
 WD
 DW
 DE
 DX
 DU

Q13. There are five persons A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing north, B sits second to the left of A, E sits second to the right of D. Who among the following sits exactly middle in the row?
 E
 B
 D
 C
 Can’t be determine

Q14. In a row of children facing North, B is 12th from the right end and is fifth to the right of A who is 15th from the left end. Then, how many children are there in the row?
 31
 40
 26
 42
 None of these

Q15. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ENFORCEMENT’, each of which have as many letters between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?
 One
 Two
 Three
 None
 More than Three












SOLUTIONS

1.D
2.D
3.C
4.A
5.B
6.C
7.D
8.A
9.D
10.D
11.A
12.B
13.E
14.A
15.B

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Banking Awareness Study Notes (DICGC) for Bank Exams

History of DICGC
The concept of insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the first time in the year 1948 after the banking crises in Bengal. The question came up for reconsideration in the year 1949, but it was decided to hold it in abeyance till the Reserve Bank of India ensured adequate arrangements for inspection of banks. Subsequently, in the year 1950, the Rural Banking Enquiry Committee also supported the concept. Serious thought to the concept was, however, given by the Reserve Bank of India and the Central Government after the crash of the Palai Central Bank Ltd., and the Laxmi Bank Ltd. in 1960. The Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21, 1961. After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the President on December 07th 1961 and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on January 1, 1962. The Deposit Insurance Scheme was initially extended to functioning commercial banks only. This included the State Bank of India and its subsidiaries, other commercial banks and the branches of the foreign banks operating in India.

The Reserve Bank of India also promoted a public limited company on January 14, 1971, named the Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd. (CGCI). The main thrust of the Credit Guarantee Schemes, introduced by the Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd., was aimed at encouraging the commercial banks to cater to the credit needs of the hitherto neglected sectors, particularly the weaker sections of the society engaged in non-industrial activities, by providing guarantee cover to the loans and advances granted by the credit institutions to small and needy borrowers covered under the priority sector.

With a view to integrating the functions of deposit insurance and credit guarantee, the above two organisations (DIC & CGCI) were merged and the present Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) came into existence on July 15, 1978. Consequently, the title of Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 was changed to 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961'.

The objective of DICGC:

The functions of the DICGC are governed by the provisions of 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961' (DICGC Act) and 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961' framed by the Reserve Bank of India in exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the said Act.

Management of DICGC:
The authorised capital of the Corporation is 50 crore, which is fully issued and subscribed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The management of the Corporation vests with its Board of Directors, of which a Deputy Governor of the RBI is the Chairman. The Head Office of the Corporation is in Mumbai. An Executive Director is in overall charge of its day-to-day operations. It has four Departments, viz. Accounts, Deposit Insurance, Credit Guarantee and Administration, under the supervision of other Senior Officers.

Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme

(I) All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India, Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.

(II) Co-operative Banks - All eligible co-operative banks as defined in Section 2(gg) of the DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance Scheme. All State, Central and Primary co-operative banks functioning in the States/Union Territories which have amended their Co-operative Societies Act as required under the DICGC Act, 1961, empowering RBI to order the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective States/Union Territories to wind up a co-operative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action for winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI, are treated as eligible banks. At present all Co-operative banks are covered by the Scheme. The Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Dadra and Nagar Haveli do not have Co-operative Banks.

Insurance coverage

Initially, under the provisions of Section 16(1) of the DICGC Act, the insurance cover was limited to 1,500/- only per depositor(s) for deposits held by him (them) in the "same right and in the same capacity" in all the branches of the bank taken together. However, the Act also empowers the Corporation to raise this limit with the prior approval of the Central Government. Accordingly, the insurance limit was enhanced from time to time as follows:
5,000/- with effect from 1st January 1968
10,000/- with effect from 1st April 1970
20,000/- with effect from 1st January 1976
30,000/- with effect from 1st July 1980
1,00,000/- with effect from 1st May 1993 onwards.
Types of Deposits Covered

DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed, current, and recurring, etc. except the following types of deposits.
Deposits of foreign Governments;
Deposits of Central/State Governments;
Inter-bank deposits
Deposits of the State Land Development Banks with the State co-operative banks;
Any amount due on account of and deposit received outside India
Any amount which has been specifically exempted by the corporation with the previous approval of the RBI.
Board of Directors

Chairman: Shri N.S.Vishwanathan (Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai)
Nominated by the Reserve Bank of India under Section 6(1)(a) of The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) Act, 1961.

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SBI Clerk Pre Quiz- Sentence Improvement

Directions (1-10): Which of the following phrases among (I), (II), and (III) given below each sentence should replace the phrase/expression printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.

Q1. Can Indian civil servants offered effectively in the country’s socio-economic development in the absence of specialisation within their ranks?
(I)deliver effectively
(II)furnish effectively
(III)deliberately offer
 Only (I)
 Only (III)
 Both (I) and (II)
 Both (II) and (III)
 No correction required

Q2. India can learn from countries such as Austria, Belgium, Norway, Romania, UK, etc. which provide vocational training to improve employability of women migrants and access to support services.
(I)improving employable women migrants
(II)in a bid to improve the living standard of all
(III)to transfer the opportunities to women migrants
 Only (I)
 Both (II) and (III)
 Only (III)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 No correction required

Q3. I had to ask them to repeat their salary offer because it just seemed too good to have been true!
(I) to be true
(II) to become true
(III) have becoming true
 only (I)
 Both (II) and (III)
 only (III)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Q4. If I have been you, I would not place too much trust in their findings.
(I) Had I been you
(II) If I were you
(III) If I was you
 only (I)
 Both (I) and (II)
 Both (I) and (III)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Q5. Unless you will study diligently, you'll never understand trigonometry.
(I) you have to study
(II) you study
(III) you will be studying
 only (I)
 Only (II)
 Both (I) and (II)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Q6. Her life was on a new course now, and the future looked brighter than it ever had.
(I) than it ever were
(II) than it has been
(III) than it ever will
 only (I)
 Only (II)
 Both (I) and (II)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Q7. I prefer to walk than to drive in a big city like Tokyo.
(I) walking than driving
(II) walk to drive
(III) walking to driving
 only (III)
 Only (II)
 Both (I) and (II)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Q8. His long and eventful career, while, crossed soon afterwards by his death on the 26th of July 1712.
(I) however, terminated soon
(II) notwithstanding, discontinued soon
(III) since, ceased early
 only (III)
 Only (II)
 Both (I) and (II)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Q9. Aadhaar has established itself as the primary form of identity, with more than nine out of 10 respondents using it for this purpose.
(I) has established it
(II) have been established it
(III) had establishing itself
 only (III)
 Only (II)
 Both (I) and (II)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Q10. She's in the most unique position of running for office against her husband.
(I) on the few unique
(II) in the much unique
(III) in the unique
 only (III)
 Only (II)
 Both (I) and (II)
 All (I), (II) and (III)
 no correction required

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, a part of the sentence is given in bold which may or may not be fitting into the sentence either due to grammatical error or contextual error. There are four expressions given below each sentence, out of which one of them can be used to replace the existing highlighted phrase to make the sentence both grammatically and contextually correct. Choose the most appropriate alternative among the five options that determine the correct phrase that should replace the phrase given in bold. If the phrase given in bold doesn’t require any replacement, choose option (e) i.e., “No correction required” as your answer.

Q11. The banking industry had begun already incorporating blockchain.

 began already
 has already begun
 have already begun
 will began already
 no replacement required

Q12. They would probably be leaving very soon and anything she had done hurrying the process meant they would get to Ashley sooner.
 she did hurriedly
 she might have done hurriedly
 she do to hurry
 she could do to hurry
 no replacement required

Q13. The dacoits looted the house and before the police arrived the things were taken away.
 the things was taken away
 they took away the things
 the things were taken off
 they taken away the things
 no replacement required

Q14. The changing Henry’s life is drastic when he lost all his money on the stock market.
 Henry’s drastically changing life
 Henry’s life changed drastically
 The drastic changes in Henry’s life
 The life of Henry changed drastically
 no replacement required

Q15. Everyone felt sorry for Kevin since his wife’s immoderate shopping bills always exceeded the amount of money he made.
 amount of money he makes
 the amount of money he have made
 amount for money he made
 the amount makes by him
 no replacement required












SOLUTIONS

1.C
2.E
3.A
4.B
5.B
6.E
7.A
8.C
9.E
10.A
11.B
12.D
13.B
14.B
15.E

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Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For SBI PO

Q1. How many words can be formed by using three letters out of a, b, c, d, e without repetition of alphabets.
 55
 60
 61
 69
 72

Q2. How many words of three letters with or without meaning can be formed using all the alphabets of the word SIMPLE without repetition of alphabets.
 100
 160
 95
 120
 130

Q3. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DISTINCTIONS be arranged.
 1001872
 9979200
 9986100
 8769150
 None of these

Q4. In how many ways can 6 persons take water from 6 taps if no tap remains unused.
 1024 ways
 860 ways
 720 ways
 700 ways
 820 ways

Q5. How many three digits number can be formed by using the digits 2, 3, 7 and 8 if
(i) Repetition of digit is allowed
(ii) Repetition of digits is not allowed
 64, 24
 64, 22
 28, 24
 26, 22
 32, 12

Directions (6-10): The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of candidates who were selected in UPSI exam from six different district of UP. Study the graph carefully to answer the following questions.

Total selected candidates = 45,000

Q6. What is the difference between no. of candidates selected in UPSI exam from Ghazipur and Etawah? 

 1850

 1600

 1800

 1500

 1700

Q7. Find the average no. of candidates who were selected in UPSI exam from Barely, Pratapgarh and Jhansi together. 

 5400

 4500

 5200

 5600

 4800

Q8. Total no. of candidates selected from Deoria is how much percent more than that of from Barely? 

 48%

 45%

 40%

 50%

 55%

Q9. Out of total selected candidates from Etawah, 20% candidates are females. Then find total male candidates who are selected from Etawah? 

 4,420

 4,320

 5,320

 3,320

 4,230

Q10. Total candidates selected from Pratapgarh is what percent of that from Barely?

Directions (11-15): What will come in place of (?) in the following number series problems? 

Q11. 1, 4, 27, 16, 125, 36, ?

 512

 729

 343

 216

 1331

Q12. 0, 6, 24, 60, ? , 210 

 120

 125

 211

 59

 338

Q13. 3645, 1215, 405, 135, ? , 15, 5 

 75

 45

 65

 55

 35

Q14. 15, 30, ? , 40, 8, 48

 10

 20

 18

 12

 15

Q15. 5, 13, 58, 357, 2868, ?

 25823

 28695

 29548

 28545

 27695

SOLUTIONS

1.B

2.D

3.B

4.C

5.A

6.C

7.A

8.D

9.B

10.A

11.C

12.A

13.B

14.A

15.B

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Reasoning Quiz For SBI PO 2019

Directions (1-5): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions;
Seven boxes are placed one above another but not necessarily in same order. Each box painted in different colour. Only two boxes are placed between Green box and Purple box. Orange box is placed above Green box. Only one box is placed between Blue and Black box. More than three boxes are placed between the Purple and Black box which is not placed on top. As many boxes placed between Green and White as placed between Yellow and Purple box. White box is not placed above Yellow box.

Q1. Which of the following box is placed at top?
 white
 purple
 green
 orange
 None of these

Q2. Which of the following box is placed just below white box?
 purple
 yellow
 black
 green
 None of these

Q3. How many boxes are placed between white colour box and orange colour box?
 One
 Three
 Two
 More than three
 None of these

Q4. Which of the following box is placed just above purple colour box?
 yellow
 blue
 green
 white
 No one

Q5. Which of the following box is placed exactly between purple colour box and black colour box?
 yellow
 green
 purple
 blue
 black

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow—
In a certain language,
Set an right time → GH MZ GI VG
Turn must sam rat → MG GN NH GI
Limit bread at star → GO WY GZ IH

Q6. What is the code of ‘ANIKET’?
 GZ
 ZG
 KG
 KJ
 GG

Q7. What is the code of ‘ROHIT’?
 IG
 GI
 RP
 MP
 None of these

Q8. What is the code of ‘CLOZE TEST?
 VX GH
 GG VC
 VX GG
 VV GH
 None of these

Q9. What will be the code of ‘SBI’?
 LA
 SY
 HR
 RH
 None of these

Q10. What will be the code of ‘STAY FOCUS?
 BH UH
 SY RP
 RP VO
 HU HB
 None of these

Directions (11-15): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark answer as

Q11. Statement: Z≥O≥N=E>K, J>R=S≤N
Conclusion: I. N≥J II. J>E
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If only conclusion I follows.
 If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
 If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Q12. Statement: F≥R>I>E≤N, E=D≥T
Conclusion: I. F≥T II. R>T
 If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
 If only conclusion I follows.
 If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Q13. Statement: A<B≤C=D, E≥C≤F≤G
Conclusion: I. E>A II. G>A
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
 If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
 If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
 If only conclusion I follows.

Q14. Statement: F≥R≤I>E≤N, E=D≥T
Conclusion: I. T>N II. N≥T
 If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
 If only conclusion I follows.
 If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Q15. Statement: A<B≤C=D, E≥C≤F≤G
Conclusion: I. G>A II. D>G
 If only conclusion I follows.
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
 If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.













 SOLUTIONS

1.B
2.C
3.B
4.E
5.B
6.A
7.B
8.C
9.D
10.E
11.E
12.D
13.C
14.D
15.A

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English Questions For SBI PO Prelims

Directions (1-5): Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number (A, B, C or D) of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice.

Q1. National integration is a way (A)/ to make people aware (B)/ about the power of united among (C)/ people living in a country. (D)/

 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q2. India is a country when people (A)/ from various region, religion, (B)/ culture, tradition, race, caste, colour, (C)/ and creed are living together. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q3. India is famous for its unity (A)/ in diversity but it is not true as (B)/ people here are not ready to accepting (C)/ other people’s opinion for development. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q4. Various rules and regulations have been planned and implemented (A)/ by the government of India to bring artificial unity in diversity (B)/ however it is only human mind which can (C)/ bring natural unity in diversity among people. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q5. Instead being from different (A)/ religions and cultures, we should (B)/ recognize that all are one in order to (C)/ build a strong and prosperous nation. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Directions (6-10): Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence meaningfully correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark “No Change required” as your answer.

Q6. If the airlines fail to inform there passengers of the cancellation, then such passengers will be entitled for a compensation in addition to the ticket refund.

 If the airlines fail to informing their passengers
 If the airlines fail to inform their passengers
 If the airlines fail to informed their passengers
 If the airlines fails to inform their passengers
 No Change required

Q7. Going for a run may seem overwhelming or exhausting just to think about before you begin, but if you can muster up the energy to start jogging, you'll often find that you become more motivated to finish as you go.
 you became more motivated to finish as you go.
 you becomes more motivated to finish as you go.
 you become more motivate to finish as you go.
 you become more motivated to finished as you go.
 No Change required

Q8. Exercising consistently and get proper nutrition will help, but these actions only indirectly improve sleep intensity.
 getting proper nutrition will help
 getting proper nutrition will helped
 getting proper nutrition will helping
 getting properly nutrition will help
 No Change required

Q9. In February this year, one of the world’s 17 megadiverse countries issued a court order which stood to evict more than a million forest-dwelling people from their homes.
 one of the worlds 17 megadiverse countries
 one off the world’s 17 megadiverse countries
 one of the world’s 17 megadiverse country
 one for the world’s 17 megadiverse countries
 No Change required

Q10. India cannot have a banking sector which is hobbled and a set of bankers who are loath too lend when the upturn comes.
 to lending when the upturn comes.
 to lend when the upturn coming.
 to lend when the upturn comes.
 to lend when the upturned comes.
 No Change required

Directions (11-15): In each Question below, a sentence is given with four words given in Bold in the sentence. Among these bold words one may be wrongly spelt. The option of that word is the answer. If all four words are correctly spelt mark (e). i.e. 'All Correct' as the answer.

Q11. A special Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) court has issued non-bailable warrents against absconding diamond merchants Nirav Modi and Mehul Choksi, accused of defrauding the Punjab National Bank (PNB), the country’s second largest lender, of over Rs. 13,500 crore.

 Investigation
 warrents
 accused
 defrauding
 All Correct

Q12. College managements were expecting support from the government as they extended whole-hearted support to the Telangana agetation, but the Government had other ideas.
 College
 expecting
 agetation
 Government
 All Correct

Q13. The accused was remanded after being produced at a local court on Sunday. With this, two arrests have been recorded in the case.
 remanded
 produced
 arrests
 recorded
 All Correct

Q14. The bank has received trimendous support from the government, other stakeholders and employees to come out of the situation.
 trimendous
 support
 stakeholders
 situation
 All Correct

Q15. The police had advised the organisers to install surveilliance cameras in all stands and at vantage points in and around the stadium.
 police
 organisers
 surveilliance
 vantage
 All Correct













SOLUTIONS

1.C
2.A
3.C
4.E
5.A
6.B
7.E
8.A
9.E
10.C
11.B
12.C
13.E
14.A
15.C

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Reasoning Quiz For SBI PO 2019

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line. Some of them are facing north while some of them are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order. Also, each person occupied different numbers i.e. 40, 17, 15, 25, 8, 22, 38 and 19 but not necessarily in the same order.
(i) The person, who occupied 38, sits second to the right of C. B sits third to the left of A. G does not sit at any of the extremes ends of the line.
(ii) Two persons sit between the persons, who occupied number 40 and 19, but both numbers does not occupy by those persons, who sits on extreme ends of the line.
(iii) Only one person sits between B and F. The person, who occupied 25, sits immediate left of the person, who occupied the highest number.
(iv) Only two people sit to the right of A. G does not occupied 40 and 22.
(v) Both the immediate neighbors of B face the same direction. Person occupied 19 does not sit second to the left of F.
(vi) F sits to the immediate right of E. Only one person sits between E and H. A face north.
(vii) Difference of numbers occupied by G and D is 10. C sits third to the left of F.
(viii) B faces the opposite direction as A. Both G and C face the opposite direction of H.
(ix) D faces the same direction as E. E occupied that number which is divisible by 4.
(x) The person, who occupied 22 sits right of the person, who occupied 17.


Q1. Who sits second to the left of B?
 D
 Person, who occupied number 40.
 A
 Person, who occupied number 19.
 None of these

Q2. How many person sit/s between H and the person, who occupied 38?
 Five
 Three
 Six
 Four
 None of these

Q3. Who among the following persons sits at extreme ends of the line?
 D, A
 H, G
 D, C
 C, H
 None of these

Q4. Who among the following person occupied number 22?
 G
 C
 D
 None of these
 B

Q5. Who among the following person sits third to the right of the person, who occupied number 8?
 C
 Person, who occupied number 15.
 G
 Person, who occupied number 22.
 Both (b) and (c)

Q6. In a certain code language ‘exercise fared perfect’ is written as ‘8kg 9vv 6uw’, ‘Regarding the business’ is written as ‘9yh 10it 4gv’, and ‘water present rared’ is written as ‘6di 8kg 6iw’, then what is the code for “present”?
 6di
 6uw
 8kg
 Either (a) or (b)
 None of these

Q7. If 3 is added to each odd (non-prime) digit in the number ‘15543251568’ and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in that number and remaining digit will remain same then which of the following digit will appear at least three times in the new number so obtained?
 3
 2
 5
 1
 None of these

Q8. Which of the following symbols should replace the sign ($) and (#) respectively in the given expression in order to make the expression D>H and M<K definitely true?
D>B≥G=M$H=O≤P#K
 ≤, =
 ≤, ≤
 >, ≤
 =, <
 ≥, <

Directions (9-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
There are seven persons in the family and each of them is of different age. A is older than B but younger than E. The third youngest person of the family is 35 year old. The third oldest person in the family is 38 year old. C is younger than F. Only G is older than D. The number of persons older than C is same as number of persons younger than C. D is older than B.

Q9. How many persons are older than B?
 Two
 Five
 Four
 One
 None of these

Q10. What can be the possible age of D?
 36
 45
 38
 25
 None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
In a three generation of a family, there are eight members i.e. D, E, F, G, H, I , J and K who were born on the same day of the same month of different year i.e. 1988, 1973, 1986, 1980, 1989, 1990, 2009, and 1984 but not necessarily in the same order.
Note: Their age are considered as on the same month and day of 2017 as their date of births.
J is four years younger than E. There is no grandmother in the family. The difference between the ages of G and F is a perfect square. G is the grandfather and oldest person of this family. The addition of I’s age and J’s age is a perfect square and perfect cube. E’s age is not less than 30 years. D’s age is a perfect cube but less than 30. F is one year older than K.

Q11. Who is 29 years old?
 I
 D
 F
 H
 J

Q12. Who among the following was born in 1984?
 K
 I
 G
 H
 J

Q13. How is H related to I?
 H is 6 years younger than I
 H is 7 years older than I
 H is 5 years older than I
 H is 2 years younger than I
 H is 4 years younger than I

Q14. Which of the following is correct?
 I was born in 1984
 K is 29 years old
 D was born in 1994
 E is 37 years old
 None of these

Q15. How many members were born between the years in which F and H born?
 Five
 One
 Three
 None
 None of these













SOLUTIONS

1.D
2.B
3.C
4.E
5.E
6.C
7.C
8.D
9.E
10.B
11.D
12.E
13.D
14.D
15.D

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English Synonyms Quiz For SBI Clerk

Direction (1-15) Choose among the following that best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q1. BARGE
(a) Shove
(b) Shout
(c) Interpret
(d) Plead

Q2. PROFITEERING
(a) Confession
(b) Vagary
(c) Diagnosis
(d) Exploitation

Q3. VOLTE-FACE
(a) Cancellation
(b) Enactment
(c) Normality
(d) Expansion

Q4. OBVERSE
(a) Inhibition
(b) Abatement
(c) Counterpart
(d) Stronghold

Q5. CRIMP
(a) Inspect
(b) Wrinkle
(c) Overlook
(d) Upgrade

Q6. UPTIGHT
(a) Antsy
(b) Relaxed
(c) Adroit
(d) Animated

Q7. PROSPECTIVE
(a) Secured
(b) Equality
(c) Intended
(d) Thrifty

Q8. DECREE
(a) Crime
(b) Command
(c) Title
(d) Award

Q9. GLOAMING
(a) Daybreak
(b) Sundown
(c) Dawn
(d) Forenoon

Q10. ORDAIN
(a) Dictate
(b) Violate
(c) Infringe
(d) Cede

Q11. IRE
(a) Cunning
(b) Fury
(c) Quirk
(d) Joyous

Q12. LABILE
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Variable
(c) Stable
(d) Scarce

Q13. FORTITUDE
(a) Prudence
(b) Allow
(c) Courage
(d) Indifferent

Q14. REPAST
(a) Futurity
(b) Feast
(c) Expound
(d) Scrimp

Q15. SCRAWL
(a) Inspect
(b) Scribble
(c) Deny
(d) Comfort












 SOLUTIONS

1.A
2.D
3.A
4.C
5.B
6.A
7.C
8.B
9.B
10.A
11.B
12.B
13.C
14.B
15.B

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SBI PO Quantitative Aptitude Quiz: 2019

Directions (1-3): Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and/or a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Read both the statements and Give answer

Q1. What marks have been obtained by Arun?
I. Arun’s marks are the average of marks of Nitin and Manick.
II. Nitin obtained 80 marks and this is 25% more than the marks obtained by Manick.
 if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data either in statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q2. Which of the four numbers w, x, y and z is the largest ?
I. The average of w, x, y and z is 25.
II. The numbers w, x and y are each less than 24.
 if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data either in statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q3. What is the average weight of the three new members who are recently included into the team?
I. The average weight of the team increases by 20 kg.
II. The three new men substitute earlier members whose weights are 64 kg, 75 kg and 66 kg.
 if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data either in statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question;
 if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q4. A train crosses a man, who is running in the same direction of train at the speed of 2m/sec. in 10 seconds. The same train crosses a tunnel in 54 seconds. If speed of train is 72 km/h then what is the length of tunnel?
 850 m
 800 m
 900 m
 750 m
 650 m

Q5. Raghav can beat Suresh by 100m in a race of 1 km when they run at speed of 10m/sec and 8 m/sec respectively. If Suresh increases his speed by 7m/sec then by how much time he will beat Raghav in the same race of 1km?
 43 sec
 36 sec
 110/3 sec
 100/3 sec
 70/3 sec

Q6. The total time taken by a boatman to row his boat upstream and downstream together, a distance of 56 km is 12 hours. The difference between times taken by him to row his boat upstream and downstream, distance of 42 km is 3 hours. Find the speed of boat and stream.
 12.5 kmph, 1.5 kmph
 11.5 kmph, 2.5 kmph
 9.5 kmph, 4.5 kmph
 10.5 kmph, 3.5 kmph
 None of these

Q7. If a train runs at 40 kmph, it reaches its destination late by 11 minutes. But if it runs at 50 kmph, it is late by 5 minutes only. The actual time (in minutes) for the train to complete the journey:
 13
 15
 19
 21
 31

Directions (8-10): Each question is followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all the three statements given and decide whether any information provided in the statement(s) is redundant and can be dispensed with while answering the questions.

Q8. What is the rate of interest?
A. The compound interest on a certain sum is Rs 19.20 more than the simple interest on the same sum and rate of interest at the end of the second year.
B. The simple interest at the same sum and same rate of interest at the end of 5 years is Rs 2400.
C. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on Rs 12,000 for 3 years is Rs 58.368.
 Either A and B together or C alone
 Only C
 Either B or C
 Only A
 Any of them

Q9. Sameer works for 8 days and leaves the job and the remaining 75% work is done by Mahesh and Kumar together in 15 days. In how many days can all three together do the work?
A. Kumar alone can do three-fourths of the work in 75 days.
B. Sameer alone can do the work in 32 days.
C. Mahesh and Kumar together can do the work in 20 days.
 None
 Any of them
 Any two of them
 All the three statements
 Either B or C

Q10. What will be the cost of painting the four walls of a room if the rate of painting is Rs 25 per square metre?
A. Perimeter of the floor is 44 m.
B. Height of the wall of the room is 10 m.
C. Ratio of length and breadth of the room is 3 : 1.
 None
 Only C
 Any two of them
 Either B or C
 Question can’t be answered even after using all the information

Directions (11-15): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q11. 12.95 × 7.05 + (85.01)² × 10.99 = ?
 69566
 79566
 81000
 80566
 76566

Q12. 432.92 - 269.11 ÷ (11.9% of 74.95) = ?
 370
 380
 403
 410
 420

Q13. 899.99÷45.072= ?-224.088
 224
 230
 250
 244
 260

Q14. (17.95)² - (14.05)² + (2343.95 + 80.93) ÷ ? = 229
 24
 28
 30
 20
 34

Q15. 39.97% of (649.8 ÷ 13.05) = 45.12 - ?
 40
 15
 25
 10
 30













SOLUTIONS

1.E
2.E
3.D
4.C
5.D
6.D
7.C
8.A
9.D
10.B
11.B
12.C
13.D
14.A
15.C

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SBI PO Prelims English Questions

Directions (1-5): Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

 Q1. Farmers are able to get viable price for this rice in the market. _______________________________________________________ The paddy straw, got after the harvest, is almost double the quantity compared with the normal varieties, he said.

 The government has taken the decision after considering the views of the state governments.
 Now after the revision in MSP, the returns of Safflower has been increased to Rs 4,945, providing a 50.1 per cent returns to farmers.
 One of the advantages for them is that they do not have to spend on fertilizers or pesticides
 He switched over to organic cultivation and traditional varieties over three years ago.
 None of these

Q2. One of the most disturbing aspects of the ongoing bad loan saga was that GNPAs officially recognized by the banks were only the tip of the iceberg. In 2013, ________________________________________________there was another dicey one hidden from public view because of a cozy arrangement with the borrower to restructure the loan.
 The immense effort put in by the stakeholders so far is required to be buttressed with substantive reforms in governance
 For all banks was at a comfortable 13.4% as of September 2018.
 For capital infusions from the government may continue
 For every bad loan that banks had recognized as NPA
 None of these

Q3. Thankfully, elections happen every five years in India. But for that, the word rural, it appears, _____________________________________________________________________. If ‘rural economy’ is the core for India, why is it that the legitimate concerns of the rural population are sought to be addressed only in the eleventh hour (at almost the end of their terms) by governments?
 would have remained in the realm of a distant memory in the minds of political masters
 raises serious questions on the way governments prioritise issues impacting the economic status of a vast part of the population.
 The word ‘rural’ has become the fulcrum around which the final full-fledged budget of the NDA-government is structured.
 is incorrect to indulge in comparisons with developed economies on the subsidy issue
 None of these

Q4. Dark matter is thought to make up most of the mass of the universe. However since it does not interact with light in the same way as normal matter, it can only be observed through its gravitational effects ___________________________________________________________ when stars form, strong winds can push gas and dust away from the heart of the galaxy. As a result, the galaxy’s centre has less mass, which affects how much gravity is felt by the remaining dark matter.
 This spinning motion, at speeds of hundreds of kilometers per second, may cause matter in the disk to take on a distinctive spiral shape
 The key to studying it may however lie in how stars are formed in these galaxies.
 Older stars reside in the bulge at the center of the galactic disk.
 These intergalactic processes may be part of natural evolution by which irregular galaxies transform into one of the other shapes
 None of these

Q5. Feeding a hungry planet is growing increasingly difficult as climate change and depletion of land and other resources undermine food systems, the U.N.F.A.O. said. _______________________________________________ but increasing farm output is hard given the “fragility of the natural resource base” since humans have outstripped Earth’s carrying capacity in terms of land, water and climate change,
 the number of hungry and malnourished people in the world has risen to levels last seen a decade ago
 adequately nourishing diets for a variety of reasons
 Population growth requires supplies of more nutritious food at affordable prices
 Increasing farm output beyond sustainable levels can cause permanent damage to ecosystems
 None of these

Directions (6-10): For each question is given a sentence or a group of sentences with four highlighted words. Among the four highlighted words, two words needs to be interchanged to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Choose the option which mentions the correct interchange to make the stanza grammatically and contextually correct.

Q6. To reread a book is to make a re-acquaintance(1) not simply of the text, the storyline and the nudge(2), it is not simply to be drawn into a process of reappraisal and see how it all stacks(3) up now compared to when the book was read ages ago. It is also a characters(4) to imagine that person you were when you first, or last as the case may be, read the book.

 1-4
 2-4
 1-3
 2-3
 3-4

Q7. While most planners and experts recommend diversifying your portfolio, going compromise (1) with it is not a good idea. “Over-diversification leads to a overboard (2) on the returns since it can take away your ability to invest a substantial (3) amount in good schemes or instruments (4).
 2-1
 3-1
 3-4
 4-1
 2-4

Q8. After all, apart from the high base effect for some companies such as Tata Consultancy Services Ltd, the industry needs to contend with a global growth (1). This double whammy (2) has already hit slowdown (3) at Accenture Plc, which reported results for the quarter(4) ended February late last month.
 1-4
 1-3
 2-4
 3-4
 1-2

Q9. Under open acreage licensing policy, companies are allowed to put in an expression of interest (EoI) for licence (1) of oil and gas in any area that is presently (2) not under any production or exploration prospecting (3). The EoIs can be put in at any time of the year but they are accumulated (4) twice annually.
 1-3
 3-4
 2-4
 1-4
 2-3

Q10. But how do banks figure out which product (1) to offer to which customer? Your transaction patterns with a bank gives a lot of offer (2). For instance, if you are spending repeatedly (3) to buy movie tickets using the Net banking facility, the bank is likely to insights (4) you a co-branded credit card that has some related benefits.
 2-3
 1-3
 1-4
 2-4
 3-4

Directions (11-15): In each of the questions given below a pharse/idiom is given in BOLD and five options are given below it. You have to choose the option which best describes the meaning of the phrase/idiom.

Q11. Backseat driver

 An event that happens infrequently.
 A person who has a lot of experience.
 An expert of the subject.
 A person who manages taxi services.
 Anyone who offers unwanted advice.

Q12. Lion’s share
 Share in profits of a company
 The largest part of something.
 The smallest part of something
 A Lion's prey
 None of the Above

Q13. Not a spark of decency
 No regret for a mistake
 No manners
 No affection towards animals
 No respect towards elders
 None of the Above

Q14. Wild goose chase
 To search for a wild goose
 To chase one’s dreams passionately
 To achieve something with complete dedication.
 A foolish and hopeless search for something unattainable.
 To do something badly or cheaply.

Q15. To kick the bucket
 To die
 To take a bath
 To lose control
 To get angry
 To shout with anger












SOLUTIONS

1.C
2.D
3.A
4.B
5.C
6.B
7.A
8.B
9.A
10.D
11.E
12.B
13.B
14.D
15.A

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English Language Quiz For LIC AAO 2019

Directions (1-5): Read the following passage and attempt the questions as directed.

Almost every willing household in India now has a legitimate electricity connection. The household electrification scheme, Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, or Saubhagya, has been implemented at an (A)....................... pace. More than 45,000 households were electrified every day over the last 18 months. Against such an achievement, it is important to ask these questions: what did it take for India to achieve this target? Why is electricity access not only about provision of connections? And, how can we ensure 24x7 power for all?

The efforts under Saubhagya have come after (B)............................................. The enactment of the Electricity Act, in 2003, and the introduction of the Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana, in 2005, expanded electrification infrastructure to most villages in the following decade. (C) But the rollout of the Saubhagya scheme, in 2017, gave the required impetus to electrifies each willing household in the country.

(D) However, over the last year, several engineers and managing directors in electricity distribution companies (discoms), their contractors, State- and Central-level bureaucrats, and possibly pitch ministers have been working at fever energy. Discom engineers have evolved in their attitude, as we saw during our on-ground research — from one of (E) scepticism to that of determination. Their efforts to meet targets even included crossing streams in Bihar on foot with electricity poles, and reaching far-flung areas in Manipur, through Myanmar, to electrify remote habitations with solar home systems.

Q1. Which of the following words given in the options should come at the place marked as (A) in the above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the blanks given in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.

(I) Since Mrs. Johnson did not have high expectations for Hank, she was shocked by his ………………………….. interest in his math grade.
(II) The damage caused by the hurricane is …………………………….and has never been experienced before in this country.
 circulate
 unprecedented
 tutelary
 remarkably
 standard

Q2. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (B) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 decades of hard work precede it
 decades off hard work preceding it
 decades in hard work preceding it
 decades of hard work preceding it
 None of the Above

Q3. In the passage given, a sentence (C) is given in BOLD. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there is no error then choose option (E) as your answer.
 But the rollout of the Saubhagya scheme
 in 2017, gave the required impetus
 to electrifies each willing
 household in the country.
 No Error

Q4. The sentence given in (D) has four words given in BOLD. Amongst the given BOLD words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.
 companies-energy
 contractors-pitch
 companies-pitch
 pitch-energy
 No change required

Q5. A word is given in bold in (E). Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word given in bold in the passage.
 Conviction
 Doubtfulness
 Belief
 Embrace
 Both (a) and (b)

Directions (6-10): Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number (A, B, C or D) of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice.

Q6. The erect of electricity poles (A)/ and an extension of wires do (B)/ not necessarily mean uninterrupted (C)/ power flow to households. (D)/

 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q7. While instances of low voltage and voltage (A)/ surges have reduced in the last three years, (B)/ about a quarter of rural households still report(C)/ low voltage issues for at least five days in a month. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q8. Cactus, a silent feature-length (A)/ fiction film about Jesus Christ (B)/ by Aneek Chaudhari, has been nominate(C)/ for Rome Independent Film Awards. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q9. Fire accidents kill thousands of people every year, (A)/ several hundreds of whose are Indians. The majority of (B)/ these incidents are caused not by mechanical failures, or nature, (C)/ but rather, because of human error and negligence. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Q10. These days, it is important for ambulances (A)/ to be stationed at huge corporate parks/ multi-national (B)/ companies in order to provide professional care (C)/ to the people in case of medical emergencies. (D)/
 A
 B
 C
 D
 No Error

Directions (11-13): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold below.

Q11. ENSURE

 Revoke
 Weaken
 Undermine
 Assure
 Enfeeble

Q12. PREDICT
 Report
 Recount
 Foretell
 Narrate
 Describe

Q13. OPPOSE
 Capitulate
 Repel
 Encourage
 Foster
 Advance

Directions (14-15): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold below.

Q14. RETAIN

 Hold
 Preserve
 Harbor
 Cherish
 Release

Q15. YIELD
 Earnings
 Succumb
 Surrender
 Resist
 Wares












SOLUTIONS

1.B
2.D
3.C
4.D
5.B
6.A
7.E
8.C
9.B
10.E
11.D
12.C
13.B
14.E
15.D

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Reasoning Quiz For SBI PO 2019

Directions (1-5): Study the given information and answer the questions: When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.

Input: movement 06 49 traffic 73 fine 97 classic

Step I:  movement 06 49 73 fine 97 classic traffic
Step II:  73 movement 06 49 fine classic traffic 97
Step III:  classic 73 movement 06 49 traffic 97 fine
Step IV:  06 classic 73 movement traffic 97 fine 49
Step IV, is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input:12 salary increment 83 58 incentive 37 delay

Q1. In which of the following step the elements ’12 salary 58 delay’ found in the same order?
 Step I
 Step IV
 Step V
 Step II
 none of these

Q2. What is the difference between the element which is fourth from left in Step III and first from right in Step IV?
 12
 27
 15
 46
 47

Q3. In step II, ‘37’ is related to ‘12’ and ‘increment’ is related to ‘salary’. In the same way ‘delay’ is related to?
 incentive
 12
 83
 58
 None of the above

Q4. Which element is exactly between ‘increment’ and ‘58’ in step IV of the given arrangement?
 delay
 12
 83
 incentive
 salary

Q5. How many steps are required for the final arrangement?
 6
 none of these
 4
 7
 5

Directions (6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 87 power 13 tide fish 25 around 36 58 union 79 ice

Step I: 131 87 power tide fish around 36 58 union 79 ice 252
Step II: around 131 87 power tide 36 58 union 79 ice 252 fish
Step III: 363 around 131 87 power tide union 79 ice 252 fish 584
Step IV: ice 363 around 131 87 tide union 79 252 fish 584 power
Step V: 795 ice 363 around 131 tide union 252 fish 584 power 876
Step VI: tide 795 ice 363 around 131 252 fish 584 power 876 union
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input for the questions.
Input: quiz 9 rough 71 guest 19 deep 43 57 sanctity 94 light

Q6. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?

 X
 VIII
 IX
 VI
 None of these

Q7. What will the addition of the numbers which is second from the left end in step II and 5th from the right end in step IV?
 312
 210
 190
 185
 None of these

Q8. Which of the following would be the difference of the numbers which is 2nd from left end in step IV and 2nd from right end in Step II?
 290
 183
 193
 241
 242

Q9. Which of the following element will be 6th from the left of 3rd from the right end in step V?
 91
 deep
 433
 light
 None of these

Q10. In Step IV, which of the following word/number would be on 4th position (from the left)?
 sanctity
 91
 71
 rough
 None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the given information and answer the questions: When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement.

Input: 14 car 63 arrow 25 road 72 tractor 49 museum

Step I:  museum 14 car 63 arrow 25 road tractor 49  72
Step II:  tractor museum 14 car arrow 25 road 49  72 63
Step III:  road tractor museum14 car arrow 25  72 63 49
Step IV:  arrow road tractor museum14 car  72 63 49 25
Step V:   car arrow road tractor museum  72 63 49 25 14
Step V, is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input:11 market 31 hand 56 pencil 74 eraser 9 marker

Q11. In which of the following step the elements ‘hand 9 74’ found in the same order?

 Step I
 Step IV
 Step V
 Step II
 none of these

Q12. What is the difference between the element which is second from right in Step III and first from right in Step IV?
 12
 31
 11
 13
 None of these

Q13. In step V, ‘hand’ is related to ‘market’ and ‘eraser’ is related to ‘56’. In the same way ‘31’ is related to?
 marker
 hand
 74
 9
 None of the above

Q14. Which element is exactly between ‘eraser’ and ‘9’ in step IV of the given arrangement?
 hand
 eraser
 market
 31
 74

Q15. How many steps are required for the final arrangement?
 6
 none of these
 4
 7
 5












SOLUTIONS

1.D
2.D
3.C
4.C
5.C
6.D
7.D
8.D
9.B
10.B
11.B
12.E
13.D
14.A
15.E

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LIC AAO General Awareness | 2019

Q1. The Swedish Parliament approved _________ as Prime Minister for a second four-year term.
 Scott Morrison
 Gaston Browne
 Donald Tusk
 Theresa May
 Stefan Lofven

Q2. UNESCO has named ________ as the World Capital of Architecture for 2020.
 London
 Paris
 Rio de Janeiro
 Berlin
 Madrid

Q3. Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman inaugurated the 426 meters long Diffo Bridge. It is built over _______.
 Kali River
 Brahmaputra River
 Son River
 Thangwa River
 Chipu River

Q4. Which of the following city hosted the 15th edition of Pravasi Bhartiya Divas?
 Varanasi
 Jaipur
 Jodhpur
 Nagpur
 Prayagraj

Q5. The Union Government, Rajasthan and the World Bank signed a _______________________ million Development Policy Loan (DPL) to support Rajasthan in improving the performance of its Electricity Distribution Sector under the State’s ‘24x7 Power for All’ program.
 USD 400 million
 USD 250 million
 USD 500 million
 USD 725 million
 USD 1200 million

Q6. The Central government and the _____________________ have signed 300 million dollar loan agreements for India Energy Efficiency Scale up Programme.
 Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
 New Development Bank
 International Monetary Fund
 Asian Development Bank
 World Bank

Q7. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has sanctioned an amount of Rs 335 crore under the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) to_______.
 Jharkhand
 Odisha
 West Bengal
 Kerala
 Rajasthan

Q8. What is the theme of the Pravasi Bhartiya Divas 2019?
 Indian Diaspora and Developing India
 New India and Role of Indian Diaspora
 Building New India
 Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India
 Role of Indian Diaspora in building 100 Smart Cities

Q9. Which institution has announced the launch of a full-fledged bachelor’s programme in Artificial Intelligence (AI) technology from the new academic session?
 IIT Delhi
 IIT Hyderabad
 IIT Mumbai
 IIT Roorkee
 IISc Bangalore

Q10. Which of the following city hosted the Arab Economic and Social Development Summit?
 Khobar
 Mecca
 Jeddah
 Beirut
 Dubai

Q11. Name the world’s oldest man, who has died at the age of 113.
 Sho Shiro
 Sauta Susuma
 Masazo Nonaka
 Masazu Susumo
 Takahiro Taiki

Q12. Kanger Ghati National Park was declared a national park in 1982 by the Government of India. In which state Kanger Ghati National Park located?
 West Bengal
 Jharkhand
 Chhattisgarh
 Odisha
 Assam

Q13. Chapoli dam is situated in-
 Goa
 Maharashtra
 Gujarat
 Rajasthan
 Karnataka

Q14. What is the capital city of Mali?
 Ouagadougou
 Praia
 Lome
 Niamey
 Bamako

Q15. India is likely to surpass _______ in the world’s largest economy rankings in 2019, to become the world’s fifth largest economy.
 The United Kingdom
 The USA
 The UAE
 France
 Germany












SOLUTIONS

1.E
2.C
3.E
4.A
5.B
6.E
7.C
8.D
9.B
10.D
11.C
12.C
13.A
14.E
15.A

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English Language Quiz For SBI PO 2019

Q1. In the question five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer.
 Ignorant
 Naive
 Foolish
 Astute
 Inept

Q2. In the question five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer.
 Permeable
 Impenetrable
 Open
 Porous
 Clear

Q3. In the question five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer.
 Negligent
 Indifferent
 Assiduous
 Neglectful
 Ignorant

Q4. In the question five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer.
 Discourage
 Dissuade
 Repel
 Cajole
 Repulse

Q5. In the question five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer.
 Gullible
 Skeptical
 Perceptive
 Wise
 Suspicious

Q6. In the question five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer.
 Careless
 Inattentive
 Languid
 Unconcerned
 Diligent

Q7. In the question five words are given in which four of them have a similar meaning and one word is the antonym for the other four words. Choose the word, opposite in meaning to the other four, as your answer.
 Flexible
 Surrendering
 Yielding
 Obdurate
 Submissive

Directions (8-15): In the passage given below there are blanks which are numbered from 8 to 15. They are to be filled with the options given below the passage against each of the respective numbers. Find out the appropriate word in each case which can most suitably complete the sentence without altering its meaning.


Q8. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.

 celebrate
 illustrated
 illusion
 knowing
 storied

Q9. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.
 notable
 distinguishing
 strike
 pronouncing
 event

Q10. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.
 aggressive
 slaughter
 aggression
 malice
 both (b) and (d)

Q11. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.
 dance
 ruling
 sing
 rule
 manage

Q12. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.
 revive
 recover
 strengthens
 repaired
 reviving

Q13. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.
 foray
 idle
 invaded
 irrupted
 read

Q14. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.
 contrived
 conspired
 manoeuvring
 exploited
 both (a) and (d)

Q15. The BJP is acutely aware that its presence has been patchy across regions and social groups, historically. Its --------8-------- victory in 2014, with 282 seats in the Lok Sabha, came primarily from the States in the north and the west. Barring Karnataka, the BJP has yet to have any --------9--------- presence in the southern States. However, in 2014 the BJP did make inroads into Assam by winning seven of its 14 seats, and it sensed an opportunity to expand its foothold in the State and further into the Northeast. The party has been roping in regional partners and expanding its individual strength in the region with remarkable -----------10---------- since then. It led an alliance to victory in 2016 in Assam, and in 2018 in Tripura it defeated the Left Front, which had been in power for five terms. As of today, four of the eight Chief Ministers in the region are from the BJP and it is a partner in --------11------- coalitions in three. The BJP has labelled its partnerships in the Northeast as a distinct entity, the North East Democratic Alliance, under the NDA umbrella. Last week, the BJP managed to woo back the Asom Gana Parishad that had quit the alliance in January over differences on the Citizenship Amendment Bill. Besides -------12------- ties with the AGP, the BJP sealed agreements for the Lok Sabha elections with the Bodoland People’s Front, Indigenous People’s Front of Tripura, National People’s Party, Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party and Sikkim Krantikari Morcha. These cover Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim, respectively. The BJP says it aims to win 22 of the 25 Lok Sabha seats in the region. The Hindutva party’s --------13-------- into the Northeast in the past often involved legal sophistry and ---------14---------. With its strength saturated in its strongholds, the BJP has --------15--------- to look for fresh terrains to grow but its efforts in the Northeast are -- for more long-term reasons.
 fever
 necessary
 compelled
 prior
 compulsions













SOLUTIONS

1.D
2.B
3.C
4.D
5.A
6.E
7.D
8.E
9.A
10.C
11.B
12.E
13.A
14.C
15.E

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