GK Trick

Banking Awareness Questions for BOB PO & SBI PO Mains Exam

Q1. IBA adopts a consultative approach to give its views on any issue pertaining to the banking sector. What is the meaning of "I" in IBA?
(a) International
(b) Institute
(c) Investment
(d) Indian
(e) Increase

Q2. IBA stands for-
(a) Indian Banks' Allocation
(b) Indian Banks' Association
(c) Institute Banks' Association
(d) Indian Banks' Assembly
(e) Indian Billing Association

Q3. IBA was set up in ________ with 22 members to discuss issues of common interests.
(a) 1946
(b) 1955
(c) 1934
(d) 1921
(e) 1961

Q4. What is the effort of IBA?
(a) Assist and provide common services to members.
(b) Promote sound and progressive banking principles and practices.
(c) Co-ordinate and co-operate on procedural, legal, technical, administration, professional matters.
(d) Build Image of banking industry through publicity and public relations.
(e) All of the above

Q5. As on December 28, 2015 the total membership of the IBA is?
(a) 302
(b) 274
(c) 237
(d) 203
(e) None of the above

Q6. The members of IBA is comprised of-
(a) Public Sector Banks
(b) Private Sector Banks
(c) Foreign Banks having offices in India
(d) Co-operative Banks and
(e) All of the above

Q7. Managing Committee of the IBA is its governing body, headed by-
(a) Chief Executives
(b) Chief Executive Officer
(c) Governor
(d) Chairman
(e) None of the above

Q8. Who is present Chairman of IBA?
(a) S S Mundra
(b) Ashwani Kumar
(c) Rajeev Rishi
(d) SS Ahluwalia
(e) Rakesh Sharma

Q9. Where is the headquarter of IBA?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Nagpur
(d) Gurugram
(e) Lucknow

Q10. What is the focus & Priorities of IBA?
(a) The Government of India on policy related issues
(b) Industry unions on wage negotiations and improving industrial relations
(c) Foreign counterparts to widen the horizon and perspectives
(d) Members to encourage inter-bank co-operation and co-ordination
(e) All of the above










Solutions

1.D
2.B
3.A
4.E
5.C
6.E
7.D
8.C
9.B
10.E





5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. IBA adopts a consultative approach to give its views on any issue pertaining to the banking sector. What is the meaning of "I"...

Frequently asked questions of Static Awareness in Bank Exams

Q1. Who amongst the following was awarded Nobel Prize for developing the technology used in integrated circuits used in PCs?
(a) Robert F. Furchgott
(b) Horst L. Stormer
(c) Jack Kilby
(d) John a. Pole
(e) Kirment Sebatian

Q2. Who is the author of book “Is New York Burning”?
(a) John Gresham
(b) Lapiere and Collins
(c) Christopher Paolini Knaul
(d) Michael Moor
(e) None of these

Q3. Who invented the battery?
(a) Roentgen
(b) Volta
(c) Faraday
(d) Maxwell
(e) William Cruickshank

Q4. Earth Summit was held in
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Brazil
(d) Australia
(e) India

Q5. Seismograph is related to
(a) Rivers
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Volcanoes
(d) Mountains
(e) Land slides

Q6. The Government of which State has instituted the ‘Tansen Samman’?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Uttarakhand

Q7. Where are the Saltoro Ranges located?
(a) Ladakh
(b) Along the Vindhyas
(c) Part of the Karakorma Ranges
(d) Part of the Western Ghats
(e) Part of the Alborz

Q8. National Science Day in India is celebrated on
(a) 30th April
(b) 1st February
(c) 19th June
(d) 23rd March
(e) 28th February

Q9. Who has instituted the “Moortidevi Sahitya Puraskar”?
(a) Ministry of HRD, Central Government
(b) Sahitya Academy
(c) Bharatiya Jnanapeeth Trust
(d) Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan
(e) None of these

Q10. Who is the present Secretary General of the United Nations?
(a) Javier Perez de Cuellar
(b) Kofi Annan
(c) U. Thant
(d) Boutros Boutros-Ghali
(e) Antonio Guterres

Q11. Indian National Bird is called
(a) Pavo cristatus
(b) Pavo muticus
(c) Afropavo congensis
(d) Perto Fruico
(e) None of these

Q12. The planning Commission of India was constituted in the year
(a) 1942
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1955
(e) 1962

Q13. Which of the following folk dances is associated with Rajasthan?
(a) Rauf
(b) Jhora
(c) Veedhi
(d) Gair
(e) Bihu

Q14. Which of the following prizes is also known as the Alternative Nobel prize?
(a) Pulitzer prize
(b) Magsaysay award
(c) Booker prize
(d) Right Livelihood award
(e) Grammy award

Q15. In which year National Film Awards were initiated?
(a) 1952
(b) 1953
(c) 1954
(d) 1955
(e) 1950











Solutions

1.C
2.B
3.B
4.C
5.B
6.B
7.C
8.E
9.C
10.E
11.A
12.C
13.D
14.D
15.C





5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. Who amongst the following was awarded Nobel Prize for developing the technology used in integrated circuits used in PCs? (a) Robert F....

General Awareness Questions for SBI PO Mains 2017

Q1. NABARD was dedicated to the service of the nation by the late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi on-
(a) 12th July 1982
(b) 01st January 1949
(c) 19th July 1980
(d) 15th April 1969
(e) 05th November 1982

Q2. As per the report of the rating agency, ICRA, the bank credit growth rate is likely to float between 5-6% in the current fiscal year (2017). ICRA was set up in 1991 set up in-
(a) 1999
(b) 1988
(c) 1955
(d) 1982
(e) 1991

Q3. Name the person, who has been elected as the head of African Union (AU) Commission?
(a) Antonio Tajani
(b) Nkosazana Dlamini-Zuma
(c) Moussa Faki Mahamat
(d) Jimmy Adams
(e) None of the given options is true

Q4. United India Insurance Company Limited (UIIC) was incorporated as a Company on 18th February 1938. General Insurance Business in India was nationalised in 1972. Where is the headquarter of UIIC?
(a) Kolkata
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Pune
(e) Chennai

Q5. NABARD was set up with an initial capital of 100 crore and to Promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural prosperity through effective credit support, related services, institution development and other innovative initiatives. Who is the present chairman of NABARD?
(a) UK Sinha
(b) RS Sharma
(c) Raghuram Rajan
(d) H K Bhanwala
(e) None of the above

Q6. Rajnath Singh is an Indian politician belonging to the Bharatiya Janata Party who currently serves as the Home Minister of India. His present constituency is?
(a) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(b) Darbhanga, Bihar
(c) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh
(e) Gurugram, Haryana

Q7. National carrier Air India will receive how much amount as equity infusion in 2017-18 under the government’s ongoing financial assistance and the amount is slightly higher than the allocation for 2016-2017?
(a) Rs 1,800 crore
(b) Rs 5,000 crore
(c) Rs 2,700 crore
(d) Rs 300 crore
(e) None of the given options is true

Q8. A new scheme will be introduced by Govt of India to create infrastructure for exports, a move aimed at reducing transaction costs for traders named TIES. what is the full form of TIES?
(a) Transaction Infrastructure for Export Scheme
(b) Trade Investment for Export Scheme
(c) Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme
(d) Trade Infrastructure for Export Service
(e) None of the given options is true

Q9. International Mother Language Day was proclaimed by the General Conference of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) and is celebrated on?
(a) April 07
(b) February 14
(c) March 08
(d) March 22
(e) February 21

Q10. UK Prime Minister ____________ has received Parliament's first stage approval to begin the process of Britain's exit from the European Union (EU) after winning a crucial vote in the House of Commons.
(a) Justin Trudeau
(b) Theresa May
(c) Malcolm Turnbull
(d) Bill English
(e) Alexis Tsipras

Q11. To augment income of farmers budget has proposed setting-up of a Dairy Processing and Infrastructure Development Fund with a corpus of ___________ over three years.
(a) Rs 19,000 crores
(b) Rs 20,000 crores
(c) Rs 5,000 crores
(d) Rs 10,000 crores
(e) Rs 8,000 crores

Q12. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in 1975 under the provisions of the Ordinance promulgated on the 26th September 1975 and followed by which act?
(a) Companies Act, 1956
(b) RRBs Act, 1976
(c) RBI Act, 1935
(d) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. FICCI is the largest and oldest apex business organisation in India. (FICCI) was established in-
(a) 1913
(b) 1919
(c) 1927
(d) 1935
(e) 1949

Q14. As a core element of its transformation journey 'FutuReady', Tata Motors presented its new Passenger Vehicle strategy and introduced its new sub-brand TAMO. TAMO will premiere at the upcoming _______ Geneva International Motor Show on March 07, 2017.
(a) 71st
(b) 87th
(c) 62nd
(d) 53rd
(e) 105th

Q15. India is expected to clock GDP growth of how much percent in 2017—18 as the country gets sufficiently remonetized and the schemes in the Budget play a supportive role, says an HSBC report.
(a) 7.1 percent
(b) 7.0 percent
(c) 6.9 percent
(d) 6.7 percent
(e) 7.3 percent












Solutions

1.E
2.E
3.C
4.E
5.D
6.A
7.A
8.C
9.E
10.B
11.E
12.B
13.C
14.B
15.A




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. NABARD was dedicated to the service of the nation by the late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi on- (a) 12th July 1982 (b) 01st Janua...

Quantitative Aptitude Questions for SBI PO Mains 2017

Q1. For admission in a graduation program in Delhi university, 90% of the candidates who appeared for the written test were males and the rest were females, 60% of the males and 80% of the females passed in the written test. What is the total number of students who appeared for the written test, if the total number of passed candidates was 1240 ?
(a) 2500
(b) 2000
(c) 2750
(d) 3500
(e) None of these

Q2. Three friends A, B and C started a venture with capitals in the ratio of 4 : 1 : 15. At the end of every quarter A halves his capital, while B doubles his capital and C leaves his capital untouched. This process is repeated till the end of the year. If at the end of the year B’s share of profit is Rs. 22,000, what is the total profit?
(a) 88,000
(b) 1,10,000
(c) 1,21,000
(d) 99,000
(e) None of these

Q3. One bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls and a second bag contains 2 white and 4 black balls. One ball is drawn from the first bag and placed unseen in the second bag. What is the probability that a ball now drawn from the second bag is black?
(a) 2/7
(b) 5/8
(c) 37/56
(d) 25/48
(e) None of these

Q4. The marked price of an article is 50% above cost price. When marked price is increased by 20% and selling price is increased by 20%. The profit doubles. If original marked price is Rs. 300, then original selling price is
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 250
(c) Rs. 240
(d) Rs. 275
(e) None of these

Q5. A publisher printed 2000 copies of a book at a cost of Rs. 70,000. He distributes 400 copies free as specimen copies. He gave 30% discount on marked price of each book which is Rs. 75. What is his gain or loss percent age?
(a) 20% gain
(b) 20% loss
(c) 10% loss
(d) 10% gain
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 6-10): In each of the following number series one number is wrong and does not follow the pattern of the question. Find the wrong number in the series.

Q6. 1882 1885 1896 1929 1996 2127
(a) 1882
(b) 1885
(c) 1896
(d) 1929
(e) None of these

Q7. 2 4 20 140 1760
(a) 20
(b) 140
(c) 4
(d) 1760
(e) 2

Q8. 24 25 51 152 617 3086
(a) 25
(b) 152
(c) 51
(d) 617
(e) 3086

Q9. 40 10 5 3.75 3.25
(a) 40
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 3.75
(e) 3.25

Q10. 1131 1142 1175 1225 1307 1406
(a) 1142
(b) 1175
(c) 1225
(d) 1307
(e) 140










Solutions

1.B
2.C
3.B
4.B
5.A
6.D
7.B
8.B
9.E
10.C






5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. For admission in a graduation program in Delhi university, 90% of the candidates who appeared for the written test were males and the r...

Banking Awareness Questions for SBI PO Mains Exam

Q1. The concept of insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the first time in the year ___________ after the banking crises in Bengal.
(a) 1941
(b) 1933
(c) 1961
(d) 1948
(e) 1919

Q2. The Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21, 1961. After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the President on December 7, 1961, and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on January 01st-
(a) 1962
(b) 1975
(c) 1956
(d) 1949
(e) 1935

Q3. The Reserve Bank of India was promoted a public limited company on January 14th, 1971, named the CGCI. What was the meaning of "C" in CGCI?
(a) Common
(b) Conclusion
(c) Corporation
(d) Concept
(e) Credit

Q4. The DIC Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21st, 1961. What is the meaning of "D" in DIC?
(a) Distance
(b) Development
(c) Deposit
(d) Demand
(e) None of the above

Q5. DICGC stands for-
(a) Deposit Investment and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(b) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(c) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Company
(d) Demand Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(e) Deposit Installment and Credit Guarantee Corporation

Q6. DICGC was came into existence on-
(a) 15th July 1949
(b) 15th July 1961
(c) 15th July 1982
(d) 15th July 1972
(e) 15th July 1978

Q7. The authorised capital of the DICGC is 50 crore, which is fully issued and subscribed by-
(a) Government of India
(b) SIDBI
(c) NABARD
(d) RBI
(e) SEBI

Q8. Which type of Banks is covered under Deposit Insurance (DICGC) Scheme?
(a) All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India
(b) Local Area Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q9. Initially (Before 1968), under the provisions of Section 16(1) of the DICGC Act, the insurance cover was limited to ________ only per depositor(s) for deposits held by him (them) in the "same right and in the same capacity" in all the branches of the bank taken together.
(a) Rs 1500
(b) Rs 2500
(c) Rs 10000
(d) Rs 50000
(e) Rs 100

Q10. Who is the present chairman of DICGC?
(a) Harsh Kumar Bhanwala
(b) SS Mundra
(c) NS Vishwanathan
(d) R Gandhi
(e) Ajay Tyagi











Solutions

1.D
2.A
3.E
4.C
5.B
6.E
7.D
8.D
9.A
10.C




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. The concept of insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the first time in the year ___________ after the banking crises...

English Questions For SBI PO Mains Exam 2017

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Cellular Operators Association of India expressed its disappointment over the 18% rate of tax under GST for telecom saying it would make services more expensive for the consumers as the industry is currently taxed at 15%.The Indian Beverage Association (IBA) also voiced its dissatisfaction with sweetened aerated water and flavoured water being placed in the highest tax slab rate of 28% combined with an additional cess of 12%.Rajan S Mathews, Director General, COAI said that they had submitted to the government that consideration must be given to the present financial condition of the sector and any rate beyond the existing rate of 15% makes the telecom services more expensive for the consumer. “This is also likely to slow down the planned rollout of infrastructure across the country and will have an impact on flagship government initiatives like Digital India and Cashless India” he said. The IBA, in a statement, said it was “extremely disappointed” at the effective tax rate of 40% on sweetened aerated water and flavoured water. This will have a negative ripple effect and hurt the entire ecosystem of farmers, retailers, distributors and bottlers.

Revenue Secretary HasmukhAdhia, however, said that the higher tax rate should not have an effect on tariffs since telecom companies can now avail of input tax credits, something they could not do under the VAT regime.MS Mani, Senior Director at Deloitte India said that the telecom sector will certainly be eligible for more credits than what it is eligible for now and the effective incidence of the tax would be different for each telecom company depending on its proportion of B2B, B2C, prepaid and post-paid business. According to Mr.Adhia, telecom companies need to calculate their input credit before the rollout of GST and accordingly reduce tariffs, so that the bill amount for the customer does not increase.He also warned that if the benefits received by operators, including telecom players as well as consumer durable firms, are not passed on to the customer, then the anti-profiteering provision would come into action.“We would request telecom companies to make it public what input tax credit they would get and accordingly by how much they can reduce the tariff,” Mr Adhia said.Separately, the Indian Beverage Association expressed its disappointment with some aspects of the GST rates.

Q1. Which of the following is placed in the highest tax slab rate?
(a) Cellular Operators Association of India
(b) Telecom companies
(c) Aerated water and flavoured water
(d) Digital India
(e) None of these

Q2. Who will be benefited from the GST rates according to the given passage?
(a) Retailers
(b) Indian Beverage Association
(c) Cellular Operators Association of India
(d) Digital India and Cashless India
(e) None of these

Q3. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(a) The Cellular Operators Association of India says services for the customers would get costlier after implementation of GST rates.
(b) Indian Beverage Association is not affected by the implementation of GST rates.
(c) The Indian Beverage Association expressed its satisfaction with all the aspects of the GST rates.
(d) Tax rate on sweetened aerated water and flavoured water is 40%.
(e) None of these

Q4. Which of the following is not a view point of Mr.Adhia?
A) Bill amount for customer should increase.
B) Higher tax rates would affect tariffs.
C) Anti-profiteering should come into action.
D) Telecom companies should calculate their input and reduce tariffs.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) B, C and D
(e) All are correct

Q5. What is the author's main objective in writing this passage?
(a) GST Rates will be helpful to farmers, retailers, distributors and bottlers
(b) Digital India and Cashless India will be affected by it
(c) Telecom companies need to calculate their input credit before the rollout of GST
(d) Telecom and beverage bodies are disenchanted with GST rates
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 6-10): In each of the following questions five options are given, of which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option having either same or opposite meaning.

Q6. Flagship
(a) Flag on a ship
(b) Lead ship
(c) Set back
(d) Companionship
(e) None of these

Q7. Ripple
(a) Contrary
(b) Billow
(c) Soul
(d) Class
(e) None of these

Q8. Regime
(a) Defeat
(b) Administration
(c) Let down
(d) Anti climax
(e) None of these

Q9. Durable
(a) Perceptible
(b) Discernible
(c) Enduring
(d) Obscured
(e) None of these

Q10. Profiteer
(a) Refugee
(b) Migrant
(c) Expatriate
(d) Amity
(e) None of these

Directions (11-15): For each of the following questions, a part or the whole of the original sentence has been highlighted in bold. You have to find the best way of writing the bold part of the sentence. Option A repeats the bold part, if the bold part is grammatically correct then choose option A.

Q11. Mauritius was a British colony for almost 200 years, excepting for the domains of administration and teaching, the English language was never really spoken on the island.
(a) excepting for
(b) except in
(c) but except in
(d) but excepting for
(e) with the exception of

Q12. George Sand (Aurore Lucile Dupin) was one of the first European writers to consider the rural poor to be legitimate subjects for literature and portray these with sympathy and respect in her novels.
(a) to be legitimate subjects for literature and portray these
(b) should be legitimate subjects for literature and portray these
(c) as being legitimate subjects for literature and portraying them
(d) as if they were legitimate subjects for literature and portray them
(e) legitimate subjects for literature and to portray them

Q13. The World Wildlife Fund has declared that global warming, a phenomenon most scientists agree to be caused by human beings in burning fossil fuels, will create havoc among migratory birds by altering the environment in ways harmful to their habitats.
(a) a phenomenon most scientists agree to be caused by human beings in burning fossil fuels,
(b) a phenomenon most scientists agree that is caused by fossil fuels burned by human beings,
(c) a phenomenon that most scientists agree is caused by human beings’ burning of fossil fuels,
(d) which most scientists agree on as a phenomenon caused by human beings who burn fossil fuels,
(e) which most scientists agree to be a phenomenon caused by fossil fuels burned by human beings,

Q14. New theories propose that catastrophic impacts of asteroids and comets may have caused reversals in the Earth’s magnetic field, the onset of ice ages, splitting apart continents 80 million years ago, and great volcanic eruptions.
(a) splitting apart continents
(b) the splitting apart of continents
(c) split apart continents
(d) continents split apart
(e) continents that were split apart

Q15. A firm specializes in the analysis of handwriting claims from a one-page writing sample that it can assess more than 300 personality traits, including enthusiasm, imagination, and ambition.
(a) from a one-page writing sample that it can assess
(b) from a one-page writing sample it has the ability of assessing
(c) the ability, from a one-page writing sample, of assessing
(d) to be able, from a one-page writing sample, to assess
(e) being able to assess, from a one-page writing sample












 Solutions

1.C
2.E
3.A
4.C
5.D
6.B
7.B
8.B
9.C
10.E
11.C
12.E
13.C
14.B
15.D




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer these questions. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help...

Frequently asked questions of Static Awareness in Bank Exams

Q1. Logo and mascot of Asian Athletics Championships unveiled in Odisha capital. Who is the present chief minister of Odisha?
(a) Pema Khandu
(b) Naveen Patnaik
(c) Pawan Kumar Chamling
(d) V. Narayanasamy
(e) Shurhozelie Liezietsu

Q2. Edelweiss Tokio launches India's first life insurance Product. Where is the headquarter of Edelweiss Tokio?
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d)  Mumbai
(e) None of these

Q3. Venu Rajamony appointed India’s Ambassador to Netherlands. What is the capital of Netherland?
(a) Amsterdam
(b) Managua
(c) Wellington
(d) Panama City
(e) Lisbon

Q4. Moon Jae-In began his five-year term as president of South Korea. What is the currency of South Korea?
(a) Leu
 (b) U.S. dollar
(c) Ruble
(d) Won
(e) Baht

Q5. Canara Bank is an Indian state-owned bank headquartered in Bangalore, in Karnataka. Who is the present CMD of Canara Bank?
(a) Rakesh Sharma
(b) M O Rego
(c) P S Jayakumar
(d) Kishore Piraji Kharat
(e) Chanda Kochhar

Q6. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad,Iraq in which year?
(a) 1940
(b) 1960
(c) 1950
(d) 1980
(e) None of the above

Q7. What is tagline of New Delhi head quartered of Punjab National Bank?
(a) Khayaal Aapka
(b) Tradition of trust
(c) The name you can bank upon
(d) Developing Banking
(e) None of the above

Q8. Bodhgaya is a city of ancient historical and mythological significance.It is one of the major tourist attractions of?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Assam
(d) Bihar
(e) Odisha

Q9. Pusarla Venkata Sindhu (PV Sindhu) is an Indian?
(a) Cricket Player
(b) Chess player
(c) Footall player
(d) Lawn Tennis player
(e) Badminton player

Q10. “Kumharia” a proposed nuclear power plant is related to which State?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Haryana
(d) West Bengal
(e) Uttar Pradesh

Q11. Who is the Governor of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Mr Edappadi K Palaniswami
(b) Pinarai Vijayan
(c) V.K. Sasikala
(d) T.T.V. Dinakaran
(e) Vidyasagar Rao

Q12. Where is head Quater of UNICEF?
(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) Paris
(d) Washington D C
(e) California

Q13. Sardar Sarovar Dam is being built on the river ___________.
(a) Krishna
(b) Tapti
(c) Narmada
(d) Mahanadi
(e) Chenab

Q14. Which among the following is a khareef crop?
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Barley
(d) Mustard
(e) Peas

Q15. Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station in ______________, with an installed capacity of 4,760MW, is currently the biggest thermal power plant in India.
(a) Kutch, Gujarat
(b) Angul, Odisha
(c) Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh
(d) Singrauli, Madhya Pradesh
(e) Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh










Solutions

1.B
2.D
3.A
4.D
5.A
6.B
7.C
8.D
9.E
10.C
11.E
12.B
13.C
14.B
15.D






5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. Logo and mascot of Asian Athletics Championships unveiled in Odisha capital. Who is the present chief minister of Odisha? (a) Pema Kha...

Banking Awareness Questions for BOB PO & SBI PO Mains Exam

Q1. Which scheme/act has enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks?
(a) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(c) Securitization Act 2002
(d) FEMA
(e) Banking Ombudsman Scheme

Q2. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced by RBI with effect from-
(a) 1991
(b) 1995
(c) 1990
(d) 2002
(e) 2006

Q3. The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by..............?
(a) Indian Government
(b) President of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) Finance Ministry

Q4. As on date, there are _________ Banking Ombudsman centre located in India.
(a) 20
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
(e) 16

Q5. The current Banking Ombudsman scheme has became operative from-
(a) January 2006
(b) September 2002
(c) January 1995
(d) February 2010
(e) None of the above

Q6. Which among the following complaint, the Banking Ombudsman can receive and consider any complain related to the efficiency in banking services?
(a) Non-payment or inordinate delay in the payment or collection of cheques, drafts, bills etc.
(b) Failure to issue or delay in issue of drafts, pay orders or bankers’ cheques.
(c) Delays, non-credit of proceeds to parties accounts, non-payment of deposit or non-observance of the Reserve Bank.
(d) Levying of charges without adequate prior notice to the customer.
(e) All of the above

Q7. How much amount to be charged by the Banking Ombudsman for filing and resolving customers’ complaints?
(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 50
(c) Rs. 1
(d) No fee
(e) Rs. 100

Q8. The Banking Ombudsman may award compensation not exceeding ___________________ to the complainant only in the case of complaints relating to credit card operations for mental agony and harassment.
(a) Rs 5 lakh
(b) Rs 10 lakh
(c) Rs 1 lakh
(d) Rs 15 lakh
(e) Rs 50 lakh

Q9. Which of the following is/are covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006?
(a) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q10. What is the maximum amount of compensation under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006?
(a) Rs 10 lakh
(b) Rs 50 lakh
(c) Rs 1 lakh
(d) Rs 1 crore
(e) No limit

Q11. If a complaint is not settled by an agreement within a period of _________ the Banking Ombudsman proceeds further to pass an award.
(a) one month
(b) two month
(c) three month
(d) four month
(e) five month

Q12. If one is not satisfied with the decision passed by the Banking Ombudsman, one can approach the _____________ against the Banking Ombudsmen’s decision.
(a) Appellate Authority
(b) Finance Ministry
(c) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
(d) Indian Banks' Association (IBA)
(e) None of the above

Q13. Appellate Authority is vested with a Deputy Governor of the RBI. Who is not a present Deputy Governor of the RBI?
(a) S. S. Mundra
(b) N. S. Vishwanathan
(c) Viral V. Acharya
(d) Urjit Patel
(e) B.P. Kanungo

Q14. Which among the following cities, Banking Ombudsman center is not located?
(a) Patna, Bihar
(b) Jaipur, Rajasthan
(c) Bengaluru, Karnataka
(d) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(e) Chennai, Tamil Nadu

Q15. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under __________ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI.
(a) Section 17 A
(b) Section 53 A
(c) Section 49 C
(d) Section 30 B
(e) Section 35 A











Solutions

1.E
2.B
3.D
4.A
5.A
6.E
7.D
8.C
9.D
10.A
11.A
12.A
13.D
14.D
15.E




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. Which scheme/act has enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain se...

Banking Awareness Questions for Bank of Baroda PO Exam

Q1. India was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the EPZ model in promoting exports. EPZ stands for-
(a) Export Point Zone
(b) External Processing Zone
(c) Export Production Zone
(d) Export Processing Zone
(e) Export Processing Zonal

Q2. Asia's first EPZ was set up in-
(a) Kandla, Gujarat
(b) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kolhapur, Maharashtra
(d) Kochin, Kerala
(e) Haridwar, Uttarakhand

Q3. In which among the following year, Asia's first EPZ was set up?
(a) 1959
(b) 1971
(c) 1965
(d) 1956
(e) 1975

Q4. What is the meaning of "E" in SEZs?
(a) Essential
(b) Economic
(c) Electronic
(d) Effective
(e) None of the above

Q5. SEZs Policy was announced in _________ with the objective of making the SEZs an engine for economic growth, supported by quality infrastructure and an attractive fiscal package both at the Central and State level with a single window clearance.
(a) December 1999
(b) October 2010
(c) January 2005
(d) July 1991
(e) April 2000

Q6. The main objectives of the SEZ act are-
(a) Generation of additional economic activity
(b) Promotion of exports of goods and services
(c) Promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources
(d) Creation of employment opportunities
(e) All of the above

Q7. Which among the following Incentives and facilities offered to the SEZs is not correct-
(a) Duty-free import/domestic procurement of goods for development, operation and maintenance of SEZ units.
(b) Exemption from State sales tax and other levies as extended by the respective State Governments.
(c) Exemption from minimum alternate tax under section 115JB of the Income Tax Act.
(d) 100% Income Tax exemption on export income for SEZ units under Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act for 10 years, 50% for next 5 years thereafter and 50% of the ploughed back export profit for next 5 years.
(e) Exemption from Central Sales Tax.

Q8. ___________ is a specifically delineated duty free enclave and shall be deemed to be foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations and duties and tariffs.
(a) SEZs
(b) FDI
(c) FIPB
(d) CDR
(e) CSR

Q9. What is the meaning of "S" in SEZs?
(a) System
(b) Simple
(c) Special
(d) Satellite
(e) Service

Q10. Who can set up an SEZ?
(a) Private sector
(b) Public sector
(c) State government
(d) All of the above
(e) Only (a) and (b)











Solutions

1.D
2.A
3.C
4.B
5.E
6.E
7.D
8.A
9.C
10.D





5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. India was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the EPZ model in promoting exports. EPZ stands for- (a) Export Po...

Current Affairs Questions & Answers

1)   Which charter is an attempt to bring accountability and transparency in EPFO functioning?
a. EPFO Charter 2017
b. Pension Fund Charter 2017
c. Citizens Charter 2017
d. None of the above

2)   A separate 24/7 DD channel has been announced for which eastern state in May 2017?
a. Jharkhand
b. Bihar
c. MP
d. UP

3)   MoS signed an MoU for development of skills in coastal area youth with which department?
a. MSME
b. MoEF
c. WCD Ministry
d. Ministry of Rural Development

4)   Who chaired the first Niti Aayog Samavesh meeting held in New Delhi on May 17, 2017?
a. Amitabh Kant
b. Ratan P Watal
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above

5)   Which new portal has ITD launched in May 2017?
a. Operation Clear Money
b. Operation Clean Money
c. Operation Constant Money
d. Operation Circulation Money

6)   CCEA has approved a new coal linkage policy to ensure adequate supply of ___ to power plants.
a. Coal
b. Dry fuel
c. fuel
d. All of the above

7)   Who has become the first Indian woman to scale Mount Everest for the 4th time?
a. Anshu Jamsenpa
b. Arunima Sinha
c. Baichendri Pal
d. None of the above

8)   How many new indigenous PHWR were approved by cabinet in May 2017?
a. 12
b. 11
c. 10
d. 9

9)   Which state has made the state language compulsory in all its schools?
a. Odisha
b. Bihar
c. Jharkhand
d. West Bengal

10)   Which cricketer has launched a foundation to create awareness for mental and physical help to women and children?
a. Ajinkya Rahane
b. Ravi Shastri
c. Rahul Dravid
d. Suresh Raina











Solutions

1.C
2.A
3.D
4.C
5.B
6.D
7.A
8.C
9.D
10.D




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 1)   Which charter is an attempt to bring accountability and transparency in EPFO functioning? a. EPFO Charter 2017 b. Pension Fund Chart...

Banking Awareness Questions for Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Grade-B Exam

Q1. MUDRA is a financial institution has been set up by Government of India for development and refinancing micro-units’ enterprises. What is the meaning of "A" in MUDRA?
(a) Agency
(b) Association
(c) Assembly
(d) Agent
(e) Alert

Q2. MUDRA stands for-
(a) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agent
(b) Medium Units Development & Refinance Association
(c) Micro Units Department & Refinance Agency
(d) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency
(e) Micro Unique Development & Refinance Assembly

Q3. The purpose of MUDRA is to provide funding to the non-corporate small business sector through various Last Mile Financial Institutions like-
(a) Banks
(b) NBFCs
(c) MFIs
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q4. MUDRA Bank, a Non-Banking Finance Company as MUDRA Ltd has been set up as a subsidiary of............?
(a) SIDBI
(b) IDBI
(c) RBI
(d) NABARD
(e) SBI

Q5. PMMY were launched on 08 April 2015 by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi. What is the full form of PMMY?
(a) Pradhan Manager MUDRA Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yatra
(c) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana
(d) Pramukh Mantri MUDRA Yojana
(e) None of the above

Q6. MUDRA gives loan in how many categories?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Six

Q7. Which among the following is not a loan category of MUDRA bank?
(a) Shishu
(b) Arun
(c) Kishor
(d) Tarun
(e) None of the above

Q8. What is the financial limit Under MUDRA's Shishu scheme?
(a) Rs. 5, 00,000
(b) Rs. 50,000
(c) Rs. 1, 00,000
(d) Rs. 10,000
(e) Rs. 1, 50,000

Q9. What is the financial limit Under MUDRA's Kishor scheme?
(a) Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 10 lakh
(b) Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 3 lakh
(c) Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 1 lakh
(d) Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 2 lakh
(e) Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 5 lakh

Q10. What is the financial limit Under MUDRA's Tarun scheme?
(a) Rs. 40 lakh to Rs. 50 lakh
(b) Rs. 30 lakh to Rs. 40 lakh
(c) Rs. 20 lakh to Rs. 30 lakh
(d) Rs. 10 lakh to Rs. 20 lakh
(e) Rs. 5 lakh to Rs. 10 lakh











Solutions

1.A
2.D
3.D
4.A
5.C
6.C
7.B
8.B
9.E
10.E






5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. MUDRA is a financial institution has been set up by Government of India for development and refinancing micro-units’ enterprises. What ...

Banking G.K.

1. Which of the following public sector banks has the largest number of branches in foreign countries?
A Bank of India
B Bank of Baroda
C Punjab National Bank
D Corporation Bank

2. The only merger of two public sector banks took place between -
A Bank of India and New Bank of India
B Punjab National Bank and New Bank of India
C Allahabad Bank and United Bank of India
D Punjab National Bank and Bank of Rajasthan

3. Which of the following banks was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919?
A Bank of Maharashtra
B Bank of Baroda
C State Bank of Saurashtra
D Union Bank of India

4. After State Bank of India, which of the following banks has the largest number of offices?
A Punjab National Bank
B Bank of India
C Andhra Bank
D Canara Bank

5. Which of the following rates are reviewed by the RBI at the time of periodical review of the policy?
 Bank rate
 Repo rate
Savings bank rate
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D All the three

6. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks?
A Rate of interest which is competitively changed in relation to other banks
B Floating rate of interest charged by banks
C Low rate of interest in the initial period which goes up subsequently
D Higher rate of interest in the initial period which goes down subsequently

7. Which of the following terms is used in banking field?
A Interest rate swap
B Input devices
C Sedimentary
D Zero Hour

8. Expand the term EMI as used in banking/finance sector?
A Easy Monthly Instalment
B Equal Monthly Investment
C Equated Monthly Instalment
D Equated Mortgage Investment

9. Bank rate is decided by which of the following?
A Reserve Bank of India
B Government Of India
C State Bank of India
D Securities and Exchange Board of India

10. With which of following types of loans are teaser rates related?
A Home loans
B Personal loans
C Auto loans
D Reverse mortgage loans











Solutions

1.B
2.B
3.D
4.A
5.D
6.C
7.A
8.C
9.A
10.A




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 1. Which of the following public sector banks has the largest number of branches in foreign countries? A Bank of India B Bank of Baroda ...

Sentence Correction English Questions for SBI PO and BOB PO 2017

Directions (1-15): In each of the following questions, there are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

Q1. A. That the US and the UK are the most popular destination for management studies is not big news.
B. But the finding of a survey conducted by the Graduate Management Admission Council have thrown up some surprises.
C. Number 4 on the list of the Top 10 preferred destination for B-school aspirants is India.
D. According to experts, India's foray into the elite league has a lot to do with the emergence of institutions such as the Indian School of Business, Hyderabad.

(a) A only
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) D only
(e) None of these

Q2. A. The fact is that Indian cities, unlike many cities abroad, lack in leadership.
B. The mayor, supposed to be the first citizen of the city,
C. has neither the time or the power to steer the city's affairs.
D. His tenure is a glorious one year in cities like Delhi and Bangalore or a extended 20 months is some other cities.

(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) B and C
(d) D only
(e) None of these

Q3. A. CPM's diminished clout today is surely thanks the mismatch
B. between adherence to ideological purity and the inability to follow through in practice.
C. Survival in politics is to the nimble-footed.
D. Hence 'revolutionary' communists have been outrun by social democrats.

(a) A only
(b) B and D
(c) C and D
(d) A and D
(e) None of these

Q4. A. Forget the fact that the Chinese economy has grown faster than India.
B. Forget the fact that in terms of infrastructural development be it power plants
C. and highways or hospitals and schools China is way ahead.
D. Perhaps the most fundamental difference between China and India is the vulnerability of each to terror.

(a) A only
(b) B and D
(c) C and D
(d) D only
(e) None of these

Q5. A. The organization that benefitted from the scam were the Internet Service Providers.
B. Rather than a risky military operation, American officials hope to isolate Mr Khameini.
C. Shahrukh Khan plus Kareena Kapoor mean a hit film.
D. 93.5, the first FM station, launched a few years ago turning teenagers to radio listeners.

(a) All are correct
(b) All are incorrect
(c) A and B
(d) C and D
(e) None of these

Q6. A. Mild showers turning gusty increasing to a storm today.
B. Any mention and explanation of the idea is likely to be dismissed.
C. Since becoming a Project Manager in April, I have been working in Bangalore.
D. It was a great concept and execution on the project.

(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) D only
(e) None of these

Q7. A. The cause of the power outage is not known to us.
B. These were the circumstances when I made that the decision to quit.
C. The King rewarded him for a commitment evidenced by years of loyal service.
D. He cut off his long hair, which made him look younger.

(a) A and D
(b) A and C
(c) B and C
(d) B and D
(e) None of these

Q8. A. Diseases when suffered by poor appear
B. to be more deadly than when they afflict better of people.
C. The less affluent, indeed are more likely to die.
D. off diseases than people who are rich.

(a) A only
(b) D only
(c) B and C
(d) C only
(e) None of these

Q9. A. In autumn of 1940, Warsaw's Jewish population,
B. swollen by forced immigration, amounted to nearly 450,000 people
C. all of those walled into an area covering less than four square kilometres.
D. By early 1942, about 83,000 died from hunger.

(a) D only
(b) B only
(c) B and D
(d) C only
(e) None of these

Q10. A. The first human settlements in Myanmar appeared some 11000 years ago.
B. The stone and fossilized-wood tools used by these people
C. have been named Anyathian, from Anyatha (another term for Upper Burma);
D. little else, however, is known of these people.

(a) B, C and D
(b) A, C and D
(c) A, B and D
(d) A, B and C
(e) None of these

Q11. A. With the expansion of Indian commerce in Southeast Asia
B. between the 1st to the 4th centuries AD, Myanmar's importance increased.
C. Indian merchants and seamen came to Myanmar as traders
D. rather as conquerors or colonists.

(a) A and D
(b) A and C
(c) B only
(d) B and C
(e) None of these

Q12. A. It's some time since anyone accused GM of making a good move.
B. The company surrendered its title as the worlds top-selling carmaker
C. to Toyota this year, in part because GM underestimated drivers appetite
D. for leaner, greener cars - a desire filled spectacularly by Toyotas Prius.

(a) B and C
(b) A and D
(c) C and D
(d) A, B and C
(e) None of these

Q13. A. Dhobi Ghat is the story of 4 characters: Arun, the famous lonely painter (Aamir);
B. Munna, the dhobi who wants to be a star (Prateik),
C. Shai, the banker on a sabbatical in India (Monica),
D. and Yasmin, the recently married Muslim girl who records her life in Mumbai for her brother back home (Kriti).

(a) A only
(b) B, C and D
(c) A and D
(d) D only
(e) None of these

Q14. A. All over the world, children study math and science
B. in the hope for becoming Bill Gates. But the hero-entrepreneur myth can be dangerous,
C. because what healthful economies really need is not more entrepreneurs,
D. but rather enough people who are willing to work for them.

(a) A only
(b) B, C and D
(c) A and D
(d) D only
(e) None of these

Q15. A. Not only the Earth's surface is warming,
B but the troposphere is heating up too.
C. In review of four decades of data on troposphere temperatures,
D. the scientists found that warming was occurring in troposphere layer.

(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) A and B
(d) D only
(e) None of these











Solutions

1.D
2.B
3.B
4.D
5.B
6.B
7.B
8.D
9.B
10.A
11.B
12.E
13.C
14.C
15.B





5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Directions (1-15): In each of the following questions, there are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the s...

New Pattern English Questions for SBI PO and BOB PO 2017

Directions (1-5): In the following sentence correction questions, a part of the sentence or complete sentence has been highlighted in bold. Out of the given options, select grammatically correct option. The first option repeats the bold part. if there is no correction required, then select option A.

Q1. In ancient Thailand, much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended for the creation of Buddha images and when they constructed and decorated the temples that enshrined them.
(a) much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended for the creation of Buddha images and when they constructed and decorated the temples that enshrined them
(b) much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended on the creation of Buddha images and on construction and decoration of the temples in which they were enshrined
(c) much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended on the creation of Buddha images as well as construction and decoration of the temples in which they were enshrined
(d) creating images of Buddha accounted for much of the local artisans’ creative energy, and also constructing and decorating the temples enshrining them
(e) the creation of Buddha images accounted for much of the local artisans’ creative energy as well as construction and decoration of the temples that enshrined them

Q2. Five fledgling sea eagles left their nests in western Scotland this summer, bringing to 34 the number of wild birds successfully raised since transplants from Norway began in 1975.
(a) bringing
(b) and brings
(c) and it brings
(d) and it brought
(e) and brought

Q3. In 1713, Alexander Pope began his translation of the Iliad, a work that, taking him seven years until completion, and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced the greatest translation in any language.
(a) his translation of the Iliad, a work that, taking him seven years until completion, and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced
(b) his translation of the Iliad, a work that took him seven years to complete and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced
(c) his translation of the Iliad, a work that had taken seven years to complete and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced it as
(d) translating the Iliad, a work that took seven years until completion and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced it as
(e) translating the Iliad, a work that had taken seven years to complete and literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced it

Q4. The automotive conveyor-belt system, which Henry Ford modeled after an assembly-line technique introduced by Ransom Olds, reduced from a day and a half to 93 minutes the required time of assembling a Model T.
(a) from a day and a half to 93 minutes the required time of assembling a Model T
(b) the time being required to assemble a Model T, from a day and a half down to 93 minutes
(c) the time being required to assemble a Model T, a day and a half to 93 minutes
(d) the time required to assemble a Model T from a day and a half to 93 minutes
(e) from a day and a half to 93 minutes, the time required for the assembling of a Model T

Q5. According to some analysts, the gains in the stock market reflect growing confidence that the economy will avoid the recession that many had feared earlier in the year and instead come in for a “soft landing,” followed by a gradual increase in business activity.
(a) that the economy will avoid the recession that many had feared earlier in the year and instead come
(b) in the economy to avoid the recession, what many feared earlier in the year, rather to come
(c) in the economy’s ability to avoid the recession, something earlier in the year many had feared, and instead to come
(d) in the economy to avoid the recession many were fearing earlier in the year, and rather to come
(e) that the economy will avoid the recession that was feared earlier this year by many, with it instead coming

Directions (6-10): In each of the questions, a word has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

Q6. Buckle
(a) After the long hike our knees were beginning to buckle.
(b) The horse suddenly broke into a buckle.
(c) Sometimes, an earthquake can make a bridge buckle.
(d) People should learn to buckle up as soon as they get into a car.
(e) None of these

Q7. Hand
(a) He was handing out free tickets for the concert.
(b) The minister handed in his resignation when it was known that he was implicated in the scandal.
(c) Have things changed since the handover of sovereignty from the British to Koreans?
(d) Hand up your coat and come and join us.
(e) None of these

Q8. Hang
(a) Hang over a minute; I need to talk to you.
(b) Don’t hang up; I need to speak to your sister.
(c) You should not allow your son to hang around in the street after dark.
(d) She was hanging on to each word that I was speaking.
(e) None of these

Q9. Fill
(a) She gave me a form and told me to fill it in.
(b) She filled up the kettle with water and made everyone a cup of tea.
(c) The glass was filled to the brim.
(d) Fill out the details of your resume.
(e) None of these

Q10. Get
(a) The boy tried to catch to the butterfly but it got away.
(b) The word got around that she was going to change her job.
(c) How are you getting over with your studies?
(d) I’ll tell her when she gets back.
(e) None of these

Directions (11-15): The following questions are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answer the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage.

Q11. Three-quarters of children vaccinated against meningitis C lose their protection against the disease by their early teens, research suggests. UK experts agreed a booster may be needed in the future. Some physicians, however, disagree by saying that British children are still protected against the potentially fatal bacteria, through the existence of herd immunity. That means that vaccination has significantly reduced the level of meningitis in the population, and so even people who are not vaccinated are also protected.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the view of the physicians?
(a) Only 25% of the teenagers had levels of the antibodies to give them protection against the disease.
(b) Herd immunity against meningitis C in UK should last until around 2015.
(c) Cases of meningitis C in UK are at an all time low.
(d) Falling immunity levels against meningitis C vaccination have been reported in many countries.
(e) Several countries have responded to the experts’ view by introducing teenage boosters.

Q12. Blood pressure can be measured either in a clinical setting, or by the patients wearing a cuff as they go about their daily lives-known as ambulatory blood pressure checks. When ambulatory blood pressure measurements were compared with those taken by doctors and nurses, it was found that there was a rise of as much as 29 units if a doctor checked it, and of 17 units if a nurse took the measurement. The closer the patient’s blood pressure was to normal levels, the less was the difference between measurements taken by ambulatory monitoring and those taken by a nurse or doctor.

Which of the following can be inferred from the paragraph?
(a) Blood pressure is made worse by doctors and nurses in someone whose level is already high.
(b) Doctors and nurses cause the blood pressure of patients to rise.
(c) Doctors and nurses are not beneficial to patients who are suffering from blood pressure.
(d) People are stressed when they are in a doctor’s surgery or a hospital.
(e) Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring accurately diagnoses high blood pressure.

Q13. Deep down, the Greek economic crisis is yet another manifestation of what I call “the political trilemma of the world economy”: economic globalization, political democracy, and the nation-state are mutually irreconcilable. We can have at most two at one time. Democracy is compatible with national sovereignty only if we restrict globalization. If we push for globalization while retaining the nation-state, we must jettison democracy.

Which of the following most logically concludes the above?
(a) Only democracies can accommodate globalization and the concept of nation state.
(b) If we want democracy along with nation state globalization will have to be encouraged.
(c) If we want globalization along with democracy the feeling of nationalism must be strong.
(d) If we want nation state along with globalization democracy is mandatory.
(e) If we want democracy along with globalization the nation state must take a back seat.

Q14. People who regularly put in overtime and work 10 or 11 hour per day increase their heart disease risk by nearly two-thirds, research suggests. The findings come from a study of 6,000 British civil servants, published online in the European Heart Journal. After accounting for known heart risk factors such as smoking, doctors found those who worked three to four hours of overtime a day ran a 60% higher risk. In many ways it confirms what occupational health doctors already know-that work/life balance plays a vital role in well-being.

All the following can be advanced for supporting the above argument EXCEPT?
(a) People who spend more time at work have less time to exercise, relax and unwind.
(b) People who spend more time at work are more likely to be stressed, anxious, or have depression.
(c) People are likely to spend more time at work when they are not happy in their personal lives.
(d) A career-minded person tends to be highly driven, aggressive, or irritable
(e) Employees who work overtime are likely to be reluctant to be absent from work despite illness.

Q15. The working mother who cannot be at home to cuddle a distraught child can relax-her voice on the phone soothes as much as a hug, a study suggests. US researchers put more than 60 girls in a stressful situation and monitored their hormonal responses when they were either phoned or hugged afterwards. Their mother’s voice produced virtually the same amount of the stress-quelling hormone oxytocin as physical comfort-a hug, or an arm around the shoulder.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Physical contact is necessary to produce oxytocin in stressful circumstances.
(b) Oxytocin release in the context of social bonding requires physical contact.
(c) Oxytocin is a hormone strongly associated with social bonding.
(d) Oxytocin is a hormone unique to girls.
(e) None of these










Solutions

1.B
2.A
3.B
4.D
5.A
6.B
7.D
8.A
9.D
10.C
11.B
12.A
13.E
14.C
15.B






5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Directions (1-5): In the following sentence correction questions, a part of the sentence or complete sentence has been highlighted in bold....

General Awareness Questions for Bank of Baroda PO 2017

Q1. ALTBalaji, the digital platform of Balalji Telefilms Ltd has announced a partnership with mobile wallet major ______.
(a) HDFC Chillr
(b) Citrus
(c) ICICI Pockets
(d) PayTM
(e) MobiKwik

Q2. Kerala, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh have joined the Centre’s power distribution company debt relief scheme named UDAY recently. UDAY stands for-
(a) Utkarsh Discom Assurance Yojna
(b) Ujjwal Disha Assurance Yojna
(c) Ujjwal Discom Assembly Yojna
(d) Ujjwal Discom Assurance Yojna
(e) Ujjwal Discom Assurance Yatra

Q3. The Government of India has signed a contract for the Discovered Small Fields (DSF) Bid 2016 with GEM Laboratories for extracting Hydrocarbons at Neduvasal. Neduvasal located in-
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Odisha
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat
(e) Kerala

Q4. Which among the following e-commerce giant has made its entry in UAE by acquiring Souq.com, the Middle East’s largest online retailer?
(a) Jabong.com
(b) Amazon
(c) Snapdeal
(d) Flipkart
(e) None of the given options is true

Q5. PSLCs are tradable certificates issued against priority sector loans of banks. What does meaning of "Cs" in PSLCs?
(a) Cess
(b) Cities
(c) Census
(d) Certificates
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from -
(a) 1995
(b) 1999
(c) 1990
(d) 1982
(e) 1988

Q7. MTSS is a way of transferring personal remittances from abroad to beneficiaries in India. What does MTSS stand for-?
(a) Mobile Transfer Service Scheme
(b) Money Transfer System Scheme
(c) Money Timing Service Scheme
(d) Market Transfer Service Scheme
(e) Money Transfer Service Scheme

Q8. How much cash can payment be made to the beneficiary in India under MTSS?
(a) Rs 2, 00,000
(b) Rs 50,000
(c) Rs 1, 00,000
(d) Rs 10,000
(e) None of the given options is true

Q9. In which among the following countries, the 9th World Environmental Education Congress (WEEC) will be held?
(a) Canada
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) Italy
(e) China

Q10. In the Historic move, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will formally open the longest road tunnel of South Asia, Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on 2nd April 2017. Chenani-Nashri Tunnel is located in-
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Manipur
(d) Assam
(e) Himachal Pradesh

Q11. India and Nepal have renewed the fuel supply agreement between Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) and Nepal Oil Corporation (NOC) for another five years. Who is the present president of Nepal?
(a) Sushil Koirala
(b) Bidhya Devi Bhandari
(c) Pushpa Kamal Dahal
(d) Ram Baran Yadav
(e) Parmanand Jha

Q12. Information & Broadcasting Minister M Venkaiah Naidu has launched the online film certification system, _____________' with an aim to censor corruption and promote clean cinema.
(a) e-moviesatya
(b) e-cinenirmaan
(c) e-cinepramaan
(d) e-moviepramaan
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. Who is current Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation Minister in Narendra Modi government?
(a) Maneka Sanjay Gandhi
(b) Kalraj Mishra
(c) Jagat Prakash Nadda
(d) Uma Bharati
(e) D. V. Sadananda Gowda

Q14. Annamalai Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the following Indian state?
(a) Kerela
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Odisha
(e) Rajasthan

Q15. Moortidevi Award is given annually in which of the following fields?
(a) Literature
(b) Films
(c) Journalism
(d) Music
(e) Art











Solutions

1.E
2.D
3.C
4.B
5.D
6.A
7.E
8.B
9.A
10.A
11.B
12.C
13.D
14.C
15.A





5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. ALTBalaji, the digital platform of Balalji Telefilms Ltd has announced a partnership with mobile wallet major ______. (a) HDFC Chillr ...

Computer Awareness Questions for NIACL Assistant

Q1. _________ is a telecommunications network which allows computers to exchange data.
(a) Computer network
(b) OCR
(c) JVM
(d) Control Panel
(e) None of the above

Q2. What is referred to as the organisation of data as a blueprint of how the database is constructed?
(a) Primary Key
(b) Candidate Key
(c) Schema
(d) Tuple
(e) Cardinality

Q3.  What is the low-level programming language for a computer, or other programmable device, in which there is a very strong (generally one-to-one) correspondence between the language and the architecture's machine code instructions called?
(a) Java
(b) Assembly language
(c) COBOL
(d) SQL
(e) None of the above

Q4. Which of the following is not a hardware component?
(a) Mouse
(b) Printer
(c) Bootstrap Loader
(d) Joy Stick
(e) Optical Storage

Q5. Which of the following is intangible in nature?
(a) Software
(b) VDU
(c) POS Terminal
(d) CPU
(e) USB Port

Q6. What is ASCII is?
(a) Numbering system for representing numbers with decimals.
(b) Character representation standard common in older mainframe computers.
(c) Encoding standard used to represent letters and characters.
(d) Symbolic programming language that directly represents machine instructions.
(e) None of the above

Q7. What is a popular program for view, create, manipulate, print and manage text document that can be read on both the OS – Windows and Macintosh?
(a) VMWare
(b) QuarkXPress
(c) Adobe Acrobat
(d) VLC
(e) None of the above

Q8. Which of the following option best refer the purpose of an application program?
(a) Meet specific user needs
(b) Make equivalent run better
(c) Allow the operating system to control resources better
(d) Convert program written in high-level language to machine level language
(e) None of the above

Q9. What is the Function key that can be used to refresh the current window?
(a) F5
(b) F6
(c) F7
(d) F8
(e) F12

Q10. Which of the following is not a network topology?
(a) Co-linear
(b) Bus
(c) Rhombus
(d) Ring
(e) Both (a) and (c)

Q11. From which of the following contents are lost when a computer is turned off?
(a) non-volatile storage
(b) input
(c) output
(d) volatile storage
(e) POST

Q12. Who is called the father of modern computing?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Hollerith
(c) Gottfried von Leibnitz
(d) Joseph M. jacquard
(e) Vannueman

Q13. Which of the following statement is closely related to Hypertext?
(a) Text stored in the memory of the computer
(b) A system of managing textual Information by creating associations between different documents
(c) Special text used in Internet developing package
(d) Text displayed on the screen of the computer
(e) None of the above

Q14. Who coined the term computer virus?
(a) MC Fee
(b) Smiths
(c) Frederick Cohen
(d) Norton
(e) None of the above

Q15. 'Ctrl +Esc' is the shortcut key combination for?
(a) Shows the start menu
(b) shows the format menu
(c) Shows the tools menu
(d) shows the insert menu
(e) None of the above











Solutions

1.A
2.C
3.B
4.C
5.A
6.C
7.C
8.A
9.A
10.E
11.D
12.A
13.B
14.C
15.A




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. _________ is a telecommunications network which allows computers to exchange data. (a) Computer network (b) OCR (c) JVM (d) Control...

Quantitative Aptitude Questions for BOB PO and Dena Bank PO

Q1. Aman can finish a piece of work by himself in 42 days. Mohit, who is 1/5 times more efficient as Aman, requires X days to finish the work by working all by himself. What is the value of X?
(a) 39 days
(b) 40 days
(c) 35 days
(d) 42 days
(e) 37 days

Q2. Gourav fires two bullets from the same place at an interval of 15 minutes but Rohit sitting in a train approaching the place hears the second sound14 minutes  30 seconds after the first. What is the approximate speed of train (if sound travels at the speed of 330 meter per second)?
(a) 330/23 m/sec
(b) 330/29 m/sec
(c) 330/27 m/sec
(d) 330/31 m/sec
(e) None of the above

Q3. The daily work of 2 men is equal to that of 3 women or that of 4 youngsters. By employing 14 men, 12 women, and 12 youngsters a certain work can be finished in 24 days. If it is required to finish it in 14 days and as an additional labour, only men are available, how many of them will be required?
(a) 18 men
(b) 20 men
(c) 48 men
(d) 28 men
(e) None of these

Q4. Equal amounts of each Rs. 43,892 is lend to two persons for 3 years. One at the rate of 30% S.I. and second at the rate of 30% C.I. annually. By how much percent the C.I. is greater than the simple interest received in this 3 years duration?
(a) 33%
(b) 35%
(c) 37%
(d) 30%
(e) 43%

Q5. A man has 7 relatives. 4 of them are ladies and 3 gentlemen; his wife also has 7 relatives. 3 of them are ladies and rest gentleman. In how many ways can they invite 3 ladies and 3 gentlemen for a dinner party so that there are 3 of the man’s relatives and 3 of the wife’s relatives?
(a) 450
(b) 498
(c) 499
(d) 485
(e) 489

Q6. How many employees are taking training in Financial skills?
(a) 292
(b) 290
(c) 288
(d) 295
(e) 300

Q7. How many executives are taking training in HRM but not in computer skills?
(a) 47
(b) 80
(c) 81
(d) 79
(e) None of these

Q8. What percent of the total number of officers are taking training in Financial skills but not in HRM?
(a) 40%
(b) 45%
(c) 44%
(d) 36%
(e) 54%

Q9. How many executives are taking training in Financial skills?
(a) 120
(b) 124
(c) 126
(d) 125
(e) None of these

Q10. How many officers are taking training in Computer skills?
(a) 80
(b) 82
(c) 89
(d) 88
(e) 90











Solutions

1.C
2.B
3.B
4.A
5.D
6.A
7.C
8.C
9.B
10.D





5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. Aman can finish a piece of work by himself in 42 days. Mohit, who is 1/5 times more efficient as Aman, requires X days to finish the wo...

Banking Awareness Quiz for SBI PO

Q1. Interest on the savings bank accounts is compounded ____?
(a) Daily
(b) Yearly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Half-yearly
(e) All of the above

Q2. The Head of Reserve Bank of India is?
(a) Chief Executive Officer
(b) Managing Director
(c) Chief Banking Officer
(d) Governor
(e) Other than the given options

Q3. Who supplies interest-charts for different maturities and for different rates of interest?
(a) IBA
(b) RBI
(c) Government of India
(d) IBRD
(e) Other than the given options

Q4. Rates of Interest on deposits are determined by ____?
(a) IBA
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) The Bank Itself
(d) Government of India
(e) Other than the given options

Q5. The Current account becomes dormant when there are no withdrawals for the last _____?
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 24 months
(d) 12 months
(e) Other than the given options

Q6. If a bank is unable to refund the short term deposits as funds are locked in long term loans, it involves?
(a) Interest Rate Risk
(b) Operational Risk
(c) Liquidity Risk
(d) Market Risk
(e) Other than the given options

Q7. If a cheque presented to the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under...?
(a) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
(b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(c) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(d) RBI Clearing House Rules
(e) Other than the given options

Q8. If a currency note is demonetized, it takes away the ________ of that currency.
(a) legal tender character
(b) exchange rate
(c) value
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q9. If credit facility applied for is rejected, the reasons, therefore should be briefly mentioned in the-
(a) Loan Applications Received and Disposal Register
(b) Opinion Reports
(c) Loan Rejection Register
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q10. In the case of Term Loans, the period of limitation is calculated as three years from?
(a) Date of documents
(b) Date of sanction
(c) Date of default
(d) Due date of each installment
(e) Other than the given options

Q11. These days Banks are offering Loans against Property, under which business segment, this activity may be categorized?
(a) Corporate Banking
(b) Personal Banking
(c) Merchant Banking
(d) Portfolio Management-Services
(e) Other than the given options

Q12. What do we mean by “ECB” in financial terms?
(a) Essential Commercial Borrowings  
(b) Essential Credit & Borrowings
(c) External Credit & Business
(d) External Commercial Borrowings
(e) Other than the given options

Q13. “Currency Swap” is an instrument to manage ____?
(a) Currency Risk
(b) Interest Rate Risk  
(c) Currency and Interest Rate Risk
(d) Cash Flows in different currencies
(e) All of the above

Q14. “Plastic Money” denotes ________?
(a) Bearer cheque
(b) Credit card
(c) Demand Draft  
(d) Traveller’s cheque
(e) Gift cheque

Q15. RBI has recently introduced Cheque Truncation System, which means that ______?
(a) Physical movement of a cheque is stopped between banks and instead an electronic image be exchanged for clearance of funds
(b) The physical movement of a cheque for clearance of funds be made more secure
(c) Issue of cheques to customers be made more secure by introducing more enhanced security features
(d) A new technology to process payments between Banks exclusively
(e) Other than the given options











Solutions

1.A
2.D
3.A
4.C
5.C
6.C
7.D
8.A
9.A
10.D
11.B
12.D
13.D
14.B
15.A







5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. Interest on the savings bank accounts is compounded ____? (a) Daily (b) Yearly (c) Quarterly (d) Half-yearly (e) All of the above ...

Jagaran Josh May 2017

5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Click Here To Download

Banking Awareness Questions for Bank of India Exam

Q1. __________  an asset, including a leased asset, becomes non­ performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank.
(a) NPA
(b) KCC
(c) NPV
(d) GDP
(e) GNP

Q2. NPA stands for-
(a) National ­performing Assets
(b) New ­performing Assets
(c) Non ­production Assets
(d) Non ­performing Assembly
(e) Non ­performing Assets

Q3. NPA is a loan or an advance where interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than ______ days in respect of a term loan.
(a) 100 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 120 days

Q4. NPA is a loan or an advance where?
(a) The installment of principal or interest there on remains overdue for one crop season for long duration crops.
(b) The account remains ‘out of order’ in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit (OD/CC).
(c) The installment of principal or interest there on remains overdue for two crop seasons for short duration crops.
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q5. Banks are required to classify NPA further into the ___________ categories based on the period for which the asset has remained non­performing and the realisability of the dues.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Four
(e) Six

Q6. Which among the following are not the categories of NPA?
(a) Sub­standard Assets
(b) Profit Assets
(c) Doubtful Assets
(d) Loss Assets
(e) None of the above

Q7. With effect from 31 March 2005, a ______________ would be one, which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
(a) Sub­standard Assets
(b) Profit Assets
(c) Doubtful Assets
(d) Loss Assets
(e) None of the above

Q8. With effect from March 31, 2005, an asset would be classified as _____________ if it has remained in the sub­standard category for a period of 12 months.
(a) Sub­standard Assets
(b) Profit Assets
(c) Doubtful Assets
(d) Loss Assets
(e) None of the above

Q9. A ______________ is one where loss has been identified by the bank or internal or external auditors or the RBI inspection but the amount has not been written off wholly.
(a) Sub­standard Assets
(b) Profit Assets
(c) Doubtful Assets
(d) Loss Assets
(e) None of the above

Q10. Which committee has recommended the setting up of Special Tribunals to reduce the time required for settling cases?
(a) Kelkar committee
(b) Justice Reddy committee
(c) Rangarajan Committee
(d) Sivaraman Committee
(e) Narasimham Committee

Q11. DRT has been constituted under Section 3 of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993. DRT stands for-
(a) Debt Recovery Tribunals
(b) Demand Recovery Tribunals
(c) Deposit Recovery Tribunals
(d) Debt Refinance Tribunals
(e) Debt Recovery Treaty

Q12. Securitisation act 2002 enables the banks to issue notices to defaulters who have to pay the debts within __________ days.
(a) 90 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 120 days
(e) None of the above

Q13. Lok Adalats have been found suitable for the recovery of small loans. They cover NPA up to -------
(a) Rs. 15 lakhs
(b) Rs. 10 lakhs
(c) Rs. 5 lakhs
(d) Rs. 20 lakhs
(e) Rs. 25 lakhs

Q14. Which organisation/bureau can help by maintaining a data bank which can be assessed by all lending institutions?
(a) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(c) Central Statistics Office (CSSO)
(d) Credit Information Bureau (CIB)
(e) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)

Q15. Compromise Settlement Scheme provides a simple mechanism for recovery of NPA. Compromise Settlement Scheme is applied to advances below ----------
(a) Rs. 1 crores
(b) Rs. 20 crores
(c) Rs. 50 crores
(d) Rs. 100 crores
(e) Rs. 10 crores











 Solutions

1.A
2.E
3.C
4.D
5.B
6.B
7.A
8.C
9.D
10.E
11.A
12.B
13.C
14.D
15.E




5 Banking and SSC : May 2017 Q1. __________  an asset, including a leased asset, becomes non­ performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank. (a) NPA (b) K...
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Concept Of Science