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GK Trick

IBPS PO Quantitative Aptitude Data Sufficiency For Prelims

Directions (1-3): Each of the following questions consist of 3 statements A, B and C. You have to determine that which of the following statement/statements are necessary to answer the questions:

Q1. The cost of three pencils, four erasers and five paperweights is Rs 28. What is the cost of an eraser?
A. The cost of a paperweight is 25 paisa less than that of the pencil and eraser together.
B. The cost of ten paperweights and 8 erasers is Rs 42.50.
C. The cost price of a pencil is 80% more than that of an eraser.
 Any two of them
 Either B alone or A and C together
 Any of them
 Either C alone or A alone
 None of these

Q2. X² : y²= ?
A. The sum of the sum of these two quantities and their difference is 12 whereas the difference of the sum of these two quantities and their difference is 6. (x>y)
B. y is 50% less than x.
C.
 Only A and B are sufficient
 Any two of A, B and C are sufficient
 Any one of A, B and C is sufficient
 Only B and C are sufficient
 All together are sufficient

Q3. What is the cost price of the book?
A. After allowing a discount of 18% on printed price shopkeeper charges Rs 516.60 for it.
B. If he had not allowed any discount, he would have a profit of 25%.
C. If he had allowed only 10% discount on printed price then he would have 12.5% profit.
 Any two of them
 Either A and B or C
 Any one of them
 All together is required
 A and either B or C

Q4. What is the cost of painting the two adjacent walls of a hall which has no windows or doors?
I. The area of the base of hall is 24 sq. metres.
II. The breadth, length and the height of the hall are in the ratio of 4: 6: 5.
III. Area of one wall is 30 square metres.
 Only I
 Only II
 Only III
 Data inadequate
 Either I or III

Q5. 4 boys and 3 girls can complete a piece of work in 21/2 days. How many days will it take for 8 boys and 6 girls to complete the same work?
A. 4 boys can complete the work in 28 days.
B. 7 girls can complete the work in 63 days.
C. The amount of work done by a girl is foursevenths of the work done by a boy in one day.
 Any two of them
 Any of them
 Only C
 Either A or B only
 No need of any information

Q6. What is the salary of P, in a group of P, Q, R, S, T and U, whose average salary is Rs. 35,000?
A. Total of the salary of Q and S is Rs. 54000.
B. Total of the salary of T and U is Rs. 58000.
 A and B together
 Answer can not be determined even using both statements
 Only B
 Either A or B only
 No need of any information

Q7. What is the rate p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs. 6,000 deposited in a Bank?
A. The simple interest for four years is Rs. 3600.
B. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest is Rs. 894.0375.
 Only A
 Any of them
 Only B
 Either A or B only
 No need of any information

Q8. What is the number?
A. 20% of that number is one fifth of that number.
B. 5/6th of that number is less than that number by 15.
 A and B together
 Any of them
 Only B
 Either A or B only
 No need of any information

Directions (9-13): Each of the questions consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the questions and the statements and decide which of the statements(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.

Q9. What is the area of the hall?
I. Material cost of flooring per sq metre is Rs. 250
II. labour cost of flooring the hall is Rs. 3,500
III. Total cost of flooring the hall is Rs. 14,500
 I and II only
 II and III only
 All I, II and III
 Any two of the three
 III and I only

Q10. What was the percentage of discount offered?
I. Profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 252 after giving discount was Rs. 52.
II. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been Rs. 80
III. Had there been no discount the profit earned would have been 40%.
 I and II only
 II and either I or III only
 I and III only
 I and either II or III only
 None of these

Q11. What is the speed of the train?
I. The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec.
II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 m in 27 seconds.
III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.
 I and II only
 I and III only
 II and III only
 Any two of the three
 None of these

Q12. What is the population of State ‘A’?
I. After increasing the population of State A by 15% it becomes 1.61 lakhs
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B is 7 : 8 respectively
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
 I only
 II and III only
 I and II only
 Either only I or II and III
 All I, II and III

Q13. How many workers are required for completing the construction work in 10 days?
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8 days
II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
III. One eighth of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 5 days
 I and II only
 II and III only
 I only
 III only
 Any one of three

Q14. Find the height of an equilateral triangle.
A. Perimeter of the triangle is equal to the perimeter of the rectangle whose length and breadth are in the ratio of 5 :3.
B. Perimeter of a square is known, which is twice the perimeter of the triangle.
C. Area of the triangle is known.
 Only A
 Any of them
 Only C
 Either B or C alone
 A and either B or C

Q15. A boat takes 2 hours to travel from point A to B in still water. To find out its speed upstream, which of the following information is/are required?
A. Distance between point A and B.
B. Time taken to travel downstream from B to A.
C. Speed of the stream of water.
 All are required
 Any one pair of A and B, B and C or C and A is sufficient.
 Only A and B
 Only A and C
 None of these













 SOLUTIONS

1.A
2.C
3.E
4.D
5.E
6.B
7.A
8.C
9.C
10.D
11.A
12.D
13.E
14.E
15.B

Label :
5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-3): Each of the following questions consist of 3 statements A, B and C. You have to determine that which of the following sta...

IBPS Reasoning Quiz (Coding-Decoding) for 2019 Exams

Directions (1-5): Study the information and answer the following questions:
In a certain code language
“Entire Money Board Perfect” is written as “ QG NB FV CW ”,
“Sleeve Washing World Stories” is written as “ XT TV TH XW ”,
“Moving Partly Falls Objects” is written as “ NT PH GH QB ”,

Q1. What is the code for ‘Radio’ in the given code language?

 SL
 GL
 SM
 RL
 None of these

Q2. What is the code for the word ‘Rising Normal’ in the given code language?
 ST OO
 ON ST
 OO SS
 OM ST
 None of these

Q3. If the code for the words ‘they forward _____’ is coded as ‘UB GW TS’ in the coded language then what will be the missing word?
 South
 Mount
 Stone
 Climb
 Both a and c

Q4. What is the code for ‘Elegant’ in the given code language?
 GG
 DG
 FG
 FF
 None of these

Q5. What is the code for ‘Elegance’ in the given code language?
 GG
 DG
 FV
 FF
 None of these

Directions (6-10): In each of the following below is given a group of letters/digits followed by four combinations of letters/symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (e), i.e. ‘None of these’, as the answer-


Conditions: 

(i) If first letter is vowel and last letter is consonant then both are coded with the code of the consonant.
(ii) If both the first and the last letter of the group are vowels, their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If both first digit and the last digit of the group is an even number, both are to be coded as the code for the first number.
(iv) If first digit of the group is an odd number then it will be coded as code of last element.

Q6. APL59O

 £&@J$α
 α&@J$£
 ©­­&$J@α
 µ$J@&*
 None of these

Q7. 21KML6
 %S!@¥%
 %S¥!@G
 %S¥!@%
 GS¥!@%
 None of these

Q8. P59Q8M
 &J$*!&
 &J$µ*!
 &$Jµ*!
 !$J*µ&
 None of these

Q9. 7AZ98K
 ¥©α$*¥
 ¥α©$*¥
 βα©$*¥
 βα©*$β
 None of these

Q10. OKQ72Z
 ©µ¥β%©
 £¥µβ%©
 %µ©@¥£
 ©¥µβ%©
 None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 

In a certain code language,
‘Bhavani Dinesh Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘yi pq mn as’
‘Adarsh Shivani Dinesh Dheeraj’ is coded as ‘mn bn st pq ‘
‘Adarsh Aman Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘cd as mn bn’

Q11. Which of the following is the code for ‘Shivani’?

 st
 bn
 pq
 mn
 None of these

Q12. Which of the following word is coded as ‘bn’?
 Aman
 Harsh
 Shivani
 Adarsh
 None of these

Q13. What may be the code of ‘Aman orange’?
 st pq
 cd mn
 pq bn
 mn pq
 cd qw

Q14. Which of the following is the code for ‘Dinesh’?
 mn
 pq
 bn
 cd
 None of these

Q15. What will be the code of ‘Aman Harsh’?
 st pq
 cd as
 cd pq
 bn as
 st bn












SOLUTIONS

1.A
2.A
3.A
4.C
5.C
6.A
7.C
8.B
9.B
10.D
11.A
12.D
13.E
14.B
15.B

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-5): Study the information and answer the following questions: In a certain code language “Entire Money Board Perfect” is wr...

ENGLISH VOCAB.( PREPOSITIONAL PHRASES)

1.    ACCOMPLISH IN
Meaning: Possessed of good qualities
Example : Mukesh is accomplished in art of painting.

2.    Acquainted with
Meaning: Familiar, known
Example : Rohit is acquainted with Ramesh.

3.    Angry with a person
Example : Ram is angry with his brother.

4.    Angry at Once Behaviour
Meaning: Possessed of good qualities
Example : The teacher was angry at his student’s behaviours.

5.    Abide by
Example : We should abide by the advice of our teacher.

6.    Agree with
Example : I do not agree with my friends in this matter.

7.    Agree to
Example : We agree to your proposal.

8.    Anxious for
Meaning : I am anxious for the prize.
9.    Anxious about
Example : he was anxious about my health.

10.  Accompanied by
Example : He was accompanied by his friend

11.  Accompanied with
Example : The fever was accompanied with cough.

12.  Hanker from
Example : He was hindered from doing this work.

13.  Part with
Example : I don’t want to part with this book.

14.  Part from
Example : I parted from my friend at the station.

15.  Preventive of
Example This medicine is a good preventive of cancer.
5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 1.    ACCOMPLISH IN Meaning: Possessed of good qualities Example : Mukesh is accomplished in art of painting. 2.    Acquainted with Me...

English (Reading Comprehension) Quiz: For SBI PO 2019

Directions (1-8): Read the following passage and answer the following questions given below.

Health Education constitutes educational programs directed towards improving the state of health and hygiene among individuals and communities. (A) Health Education provides information about the factors that affect the health and hygiene of an individual or a community. One of the main strengths of Health education in India is the presence of an (B)------------------ multi- level infrastructure both in the government and non- government sectors. The central health education bureau works in collaboration with the state health education bureau, up to the block level. Another strength of Health education in India is an efficiently trained work force. Majority of health educators in India are either graduate or post graduate. Another strength of health education in India lies in the successful information (C)------------------ throughout its states, despite the linguistic variations. India has 15 official languages and several local dialects; even then health education programs are able to successfully convey the message.
(D) Weaknesses of the health education in India include high dependability on print media, lack of research and conventional training methods of educators, inability to reaching all the remote villages and no avenues of professional growth for health educators. Most of the campaigns on health education, either in government or non- government sector rely on print media for promotion; through, newspapers, posters and pamphlets. (E) Around 40% of Indians are unable to read or write, which defeats the purpose as the ground fails to reach the uneducated at promotion level. Another weakness of Health education in India is the absence of better growth avenues for the functionaries. Because of not being properly organized, the profession is non- lucrative for youths, who rather opt for other more promising professional courses. Also, the mode of training and education in public health is conventional and there is a dire need to (F)---------------- modern techniques along with better exposure to the professionals.
One of the best ways to improve the state of public health education in India is to let a well- trained workforce reach out to people in remote areas. More emphasis should be given on interacting with the villagers on occasions of public gathering like – fares, markets etc. Moreover, methods like plays, folk shows should be used to convey the message, rather than print media. People visiting hospitals and clinics are more conscious about health issues and so efforts must be made to educate them. They naturally tend to be more receptive and benefit from the programs. Schools could also play a significant role in spreading health education. (G) Schools are the best place to interact with children belonging to different sections of society. Teachers could be adequately trained to impart health education to the children. Children on the other hand could share their knowledge with their parents, relatives and friends. Also, it should be made compulsory for any medical professional to serve a fixed tenure in some remote village, where s/he is vested with the responsibility of educating people about health and hygiene along with addressing their ailments.
It is (H)--------------------- for India to improve to a never seen before standards of health. For which it also necessary to target the marginalized sections of Indian society; for it is them who are deprived of basic health amenities and are oblivious of many health concerns. There is a need to open new avenues of health education, at ground level as well as strengthening the infrastructure related to health education.

Q1. In the passage given, a sentence (A) is given in italics. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error then choose option (e) as your answer.
 Health Education provides information
 about the factors that
 affect the health and hygiene
 of an individual or a community
 No error

Q2. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (B) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 unauthorized
 abrupt
 adequate
 loose
 sanctioned

Q3. Which of the following word given in the options should come at the place marked as (C) in the above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(i) Because the soldier had saved his entire unit, the president gave him ---------------------- for his wartime crimes.
(ii) Families were shocked to learn that the state had been given ------------------------ from a city law in order to build a prison near their subdivision.
 dispensation
 contract
 eligible
 devise
 elitism

Q4. In the passage given, a sentence (D) is given in italics. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error then choose option (e) as your answer.
 Weaknesses of the health education in India include high
 dependability on print media, lack of research and conventional training
 methods of educators, inability to reaching all the remote villages and
 no avenues of professional growth for health educators.
 No error

Q5. The sentence given in (E) has four words given in BOLD. Amongst the given BOLD words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.
 defeats- ground
 unable- defeats
 ground- unable
 ground- promotion
 No change required

Q6. Which of the following word given in the options should come at the place marked as (F) in the above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(i) The activists marched and protested to ------------------------- schools so children of all races could learn together.
(ii) The data administrator is going to --------------------- the databases so we can work in one system instead of two.
 manifest
 contradict
 joining
 integrate
 None of the above

Q7. In the passage given, a sentence (G) is given in italics. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error then choose option (e) as your answer.
 Schools are the best place
 to interact with children
 belonging to different
 sections of society.
 No error

Q8. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (H) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 insisted
 imperative
 cruise
 motivating
 relaxing

Directions (9-15): Read the following passage and answer the following questions given below.

Sustainable development aims to preserve the natural resources so that even after the current generation used them to meet their needs, there is enough left for the coming generation. And as a matter of fact, even for generations after that. In order to (A)-------------- the sustainable development, the environment is needed to be protected.
Some of the current issues related to environment are global warming and depletion of natural resources. Global warming refers to the permanent climate change of the earth owing to industrial pollution, degradation of the environment, greenhouse gas emission, depletion of the ozone layer which means a –(B)------------------- in the total amount of ozone on earth’s stratosphere. Scientists have proven that the temperature of the earth is increasing and if necessary precautions are not being taken, the situation will be worse which will cause further negative impact on the environment and human health.
Depletion of natural resources is another major concern. (C) With the overpopulation, the consumption of earth’s natural resources is taking place at a fast rate even before they could be replenished. Global warming leads to the low rate of production of agricultural products and with depletion of natural resources adding to it, very soon the mass population of earth will face not only a shortage of food but also shortage of resources to carry out any development process.
In order to overcome the shortage, chemicals are used to increase the production of agricultural products. This not only decreases the value of soil, but also affects human health in a negative way. If the process continues, the inhabitants of the earth are (D)------------------------------. In all these years, plenty of damages have been caused to earth’s environment and its resources. If necessary activities and measures are taken to protect the environment, there is hope that much worse condition could be (E)----------------- if not totally avoided. In order to reduce global warming, protection of forests and wetlands are important. Trees should not be cut until and unless they are absolutely necessary. In such cases, it is required to plant as many trees wherever possible. A single step taken by a huge part of the population can play a major role in protecting the environment. It is also important to conserve natural resources, biodiversity, and wildlife. Apart from that, every inhabitant of the earth should play their part in preventing ozone layer from depletion.
The main ozone-depleting substances are widely used in refrigerators, air conditioners and fire extinguishers. Many refrigerators and air conditioners use Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC) and Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) as a refrigerant. These are important elements in causing depletion to the earth’s ozone layer. It is hence important to not use products that use HCFC and CFC as refrigerants. It is also advisable to avoid using aerosol products that use HCFCs and CFCs as propellants. (F) Apart from all these above-mentioned emit, precaution should be taken to measures less carbon to the environment. In order to undergo sustainable development, necessary precaution should be taken to protect the environment. This, in turn, will benefit the present population as well as the coming generations, which is the (G)---------------------------------. Protection of environment hence is an important step in sustainable development.

Q9. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (A) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 maintain
 gain
 profit
 durable
 integrate

Q10. Which of the following word given in the options should come at the place marked as (B) in the above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(i) Better constructed tires mean that spinouts are on the ----------------------.
(ii) A crack in the water tower is causing the water level to ------------------------.
 good
 benign
 decline
 diminishing
 subtract

Q11. In the passage given, a sentence (C) is given in italics. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error then choose option (e) as your answer.
 With the overpopulation, the consumption
 of earth’s natural resources
 is taking place at a fast rate
 even before they could be replenished
 No error

Q12. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (D) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 going to face serious issues
 gone to face serious issues.
 going too face serious issues.
 going to facing serious issues.
 None of the above

Q13. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (E) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 henceforth
 delay
 prepone
 postponed
 None of the above

Q14. The sentence given in (F) has four words given in BOLD. Amongst the given BOLD words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.
 apart- measures
 apart- emit
 emit- measures
 emit- should
 No change

Q15. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (G) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 ultimate goal off sustainable development
 ultimate goal of sustainable development
 ultimate goal of in sustainable development
 ultimate goal of for sustainable development
 None of the above












SOLUTIONS

1.E
2.C
3.A
4.C
5.D
6.D
7.E
8.B
9.A
10.C
11.C
12.A
13.D
14.C
15.B

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-8): Read the following passage and answer the following questions given below. Health Education constitutes educational pro...

NIACL AO Mains General Awareness | 2019

Q1. According to data furnished by the Reserve Bank of India, between 2015 and 2017, which of the following bank has penalized the highest number of employees for defrauding bank assets in the last three years?
 ICICI Bank
 State Bank of India
 Punjab National Bank
 HDFC Bank
 Axis Bank

Q2. Small Industries Development Bank of India headquarters in __________.
 Kanpur
 Mumbai
 Chennai
 Lucknow
 Kochin

Q3. The PM Narendra Modi has recently dedicated the 6th International Rice Research Institute (IRRI), South Asia Regional Center (ISARC) to the nation in ______________.
 Mumbai
 Varanasi
 Chennai
 New Delhi
 Mangalore

Q4. What was the theme for 42nd Indian Social Science Congress 2018?
 Digital India, Better India
 Human Future in Digital Era
 Human Behavior for Change
 Changing Behavior of Human Being
 None of the given options is true

Q5. In which city, India Banking Conclave 2018 was held recently?
 Mumbai
 Kolkata
 New Delhi
 Chennai
 Bengaluru

Q6. DBOD is entrusted with the responsibility of regulation of commercial banks under the regulatory provisions contained in the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and RBI Act, 1934 besides enunciation of banking policies. What is the full form of DBOD?
 Department of Banking Operations & District
 Department of Banking Operations & Development
 Department of Banking Operations & Division
 Department of Branches Operations & Development
 Department of Banking Order & Development

07.The functions of DBOD is broadly relate to prescription of regulations for compliance with various provisions of Banking Regulation Act on establishment of banks such as-
 Investments and loans
 Maintenance of statutory liquidity
 Issue of guidelines on Prudential Norms relating to Capital Adequacy
 Management and operations
 All of the given options are true

Q8. As per the MHA notification, Khalistan Liberation Force (KLF) was founded in _____________ by Aroor Singh and Sukhvinder Singh Babbar.
 1956
 1978
 1998
 1986
 1968

Q9. Name the sportsperson who was named Balkan Athlete of the Year 2018. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
 Novak Djokovic
 Luka Modric
 Rafale Nadal
 Roger Federer
 Virat Kohli

Q10. Name the 33-year-old man from the United States who has become the first person to complete a solo trek across Antarctica without any assistance.
 Tommy Caldwell
 Conrad Anker
 Jim Whittaker
 Colin O’Brady
 Tom Hornbein

Q11. The Union Cabinet approved amendments to POCSO Act, 2012. What does 'C' stand for in POCSO?
 Cosmos
 Chemical
 Children
 Composed
 Compost

Q12. Who is the present Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?
 Lalji Tandon
 Satya Pal Malik
 Jagdish Mukhi
 Banwarilal Purohit
 Acharya Dev Vrat

Q13. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) is animal rights organization based in-
 France
 UK
 Germany
 Canada
 USA

Q14. Where is the headquarters of Yes Bank?
 Chennai
 Kolkata
 New Delhi
 Mumbai
 Nagpur

Q15. Ashgabat is the Capital city of _____________.
 Afghanistan
 Uzbekistan
 Azerbaijan
 Turkmenistan
 Tajikistan











SOLUTIONS

1.A
2.D
3.B
4.B
5.C
6.B
7.E
8.D
9.B
10.D
11.C
12.B
13.E
14.D
15.D

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Q1. According to data furnished by the Reserve Bank of India, between 2015 and 2017, which of the following bank has penalized the highest ...

Reasoning Quiz: For NIACL AO Mains Exam 2019

Directions (1-2): Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Dinesh who is facing South walked 50 m before turning to his left to walk 30 m. From this point, he turned towards North and walked for 30 m before reaching his friend’s house. To return to his house he turned left and walked straight 30 m.
Q1. How far is Dinesh’s house from his starting point?

 20 m
 10 m
 15 m
 25 m
 18 m

Q2. In which direction is his friend’s house from Dinesh’s house?
 East
 West
 South
 North
 None of these

Q3. Abhijit’s house is to the right of Baljit’s house at a distance of 20 m in the row facing North. Sanjay’s house is in the North-East direction from Baljit’s house at a distance of 25 m. Abhijit’s house is in which direction with respect to Sanjay’s house?
 North
 East
 West
 South-West
 Data inadequate

Directions (4-5): Study the following information and answer the questions given:

Ravi walked 5m towards north from point A and reached point B. He took a right turn from point B and walked 7m and reached point C. He took another right turn from point C and walked 6m to reach point D. Ravi took a right turn from point D and walked 3m to reach point E. From point E, Ravi took another right turn and walk 6m and reached point F

Q4. Point F is in which direction with respect to point A?

 North
 South
 South-east
 South-west
 North-east

Q5. Point E is in which direction with respect to point C?
 North
 South
 South-east
 South-west
 None of these

Directions (6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Eight friends are sitting in a row and some of them are facing north and some are facing south. A faces north and sits fourth to the right of the one who sits at one of the extreme end. B sits at one of the extreme end and faces north. Three persons sit between E and F and both faces south direction and doesn’t sit at any extreme end. Two persons sit between C and D and none of them sit at extreme end. H sits 2nd to the left of F. G is one of the neighbor of C and faces south. Both D and H face same direction. Not more than two person sitting together faces same direction.

Q6. Who among the following sits at an extreme end?

 A
 B
 C
 D
 None of these

Q7. Who sits second to the left of D?
 A
 B
 C
 E
 None of these

Q8. How many persons sit between G and D?
 1
 2
 3
 more than 3
 None

Q9. Who sits third to the left of F?
 A
 B
 C
 No one
 None of these

Q10. Four of the following belong to a group find the one that doesn’t belong to that group?
 A
 B
 H
 D
 E

Directions (11-13) : Each of the following questions consists of a statement followed by two arguments I and II. Give answer

Q11. Statement : Should officers accepting bribe be punished?

Arguments :
I. No. Certain circumstances may have compelled them to take bribe.
II. Yes. They should do the job they are entrusted with, honestly.
 if only argument I is strong
 if only argument II is strong
 if either I or II is strong
 if neither I nor II is strong
 if both I and II are strong.

Q12. Statement : Should India become a permanent member of UN’s Security Council?
Arguments :
I. Yes. India has emerged as a country which loves peace and amity.
II. No. Let us first solve problems of our own people like poverty, malnutrition.
 if only argument I is strong
 if only argument II is strong
 if either I or II is strong
 if neither I nor II is strong
 if both I and II are strong.

Q13. Statement : Should the persons below the age of 18 years be allowed to join armed forces?
Arguments :
I. No. Persons below the age of 18 do not attain both physical and mental maturity to shoulder such burden.
II. Yes, this can makes our army more powerful.
 if only argument I is strong
 if only argument II is strong
 if either I or II is strong
 if neither I nor II is strong
 if both I and II are strong.

Directions (14 - 15): Study the following instructions carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

Q14. Statement: Many people living in the slums of western part of the town are diagnosed to be suffering from malaria.

Courses of Action:
I. The municipal corporation should immediately make.
II. The municipal authority should immediately make necessary arrangements to provide quick medical help to the affected people.
III. The municipal authority should take steps to shift all the people staying in the slums of western part of town to other areas.
 Only I follows
 Only II follows.
 Only I and III follow.
 Only I, II and III follow.
 None of these

Q15. Statement: Many teachers of the local school have rendered their resignation to the principal to protest the management’s decision for not implementing revised pay scales.
Courses of Action:
I. The school management should accept the resignations and appoint new teachers.
II. The school management should persuade the teachers to continue with an assurance of considering the pay hike issue.
III. The school management should approach the govt. for guidelines.
 None follows
 Only either I or II follows.
 Only III follows.
 Only I follows.
 Only II follows.













SOLUTIONS

1.A
2.A
3.E
4.E
5.D
6.B
7.A
8.C
9.D
10.E
11.B
12.A
13.A
14.D
15.A

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-2): Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: Dinesh who is facing South walked 50 ...

Static GK Series: Awards List - Part I

International Gandhi Peace Prize
a) The Government of India launched the International Gandhi Peace Prize in 1995 on the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of Mohandas Gandhi.
b) This award given to individuals and institutions for their contributions towards social, economic and political transformation through non-violence and other Gandhian methods.
c) The first awardee of this prize was Julius Nyerere.
d) In 2014, this award was given to ISRO i.e. Indian Space Research Organization.

Indira Gandhi Peace Prize
a) The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize or the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is accorded annually by India to individuals or organizations in recognition of creative efforts toward promoting international peace, development and a new international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom.
b) It was firstly awarded in 1986 to Parliamentarians for Global Action. PGA is a non-profit, non-partisan international network of committed legislators, informs and mobilizes parliamentarians in all regions of the world to advocate for human rights and the rule of law, democracy, human security, non-discrimination, and gender equality.
c) The first person to be awarded this award was Mikhail Gorbachev in 1987, he was awarded.
d) In 2014, Indian Space Research Organisation was awarded with this award.

Civilian Awards

Bharat Ratna, Padma Vubhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri are the various civilian awards.

Bharat Ratna
a) It is the premier civilian award, to serve the nation.
b) The various fields are scientific achievements literary, scientific accomplishment, as well as the gratitude of community service of the highest category. From 2011, the Prime Minister and the Home Minister of India changed the qualified criterion to permit sportsmen for receiving the award.
c) This was first given to C. Rajagopalachari, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan & C. V. Raman in 1954.
d) In 2015, this was given to Madan Mohan Malaviya(posthumous) & Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

Padma Vubhushan
a) Ranking wise the second award is the Padma Vibhushan in the Indian Republic. It awarded people from various fields including government service to distinguish extraordinary service for the country.
b) It was firstly awarded to Satyendra Nath Bose, Zakir Hussain, Balasaheb Gangadhar Kher, Jigme Dorji Wangchuk, Nand Lal Bose, V. K. Krishna Menon in 1954.
c) In 2015 it was awarded to, L. K. Advani, Amitabh Bachchan, Parkash Singh Badal, Veerendra Heggade, Dilip Kumar, Rambhadracharya, M.R. Srinivasan, Kottayan Katankot Venugopal & Aga Khan IV.

Padma Bhushan
a) The Padma Bhushan  is the highest civilian award third in rank in the Indian Republic,and comes after the Bharat Ratna and the Padma Vibhushan. The President of India launched this award on 2nd January 1954.
b) In 1954, 23 were given Padma Bhushan and in 2015, 20 were given Padma Bhushan award.
Padma Shri
a) Padma Shri or Padmashree is the fourth award high in order in the Indian Republic, after the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan and the Padma Bhushan.
b) It is awarded by the Government of India.
c) It is awarded to citizens of India for their distinguished contribution in several fields including Education, Literature, Arts, Science, Industry, Social Service, Medicine, Sports and Public Affairs.
d) In 1954, 18 were given Padma Shri award and in 2015, 75 were selected for Padma Shri award.

Sports Awards

Dronacharya Award
a) Instituted in 1985, the Dronacharya Award is presented by the Indian Government for brilliance in sports coaching.
b) This was first given to O.M. Nambiar, Om Prakash Bhardwaj & Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat. In 2014, this was given to Jose Jacob & N.Lingappa.

Dhyan Chand Award
a) The Dhyan Chand Award is the highest lifetime achievement award in sports and games in India and is presented by the Indian Government.
b) It was initiated in 2002.
c) It was firstly given to Aparna Ghosh, Ashok Diwan & Shahuraj Birajdar. In 2015, this was given to Romeo James, Shiv Prakash Mishra & T.P.P.Nair.

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
a) In India, the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is the highest honor given for accomplishment in sports.
b) The award was initiated in 1991-92 to offer a highest national tribute in the field of sports.
c) It was first given in 1991-92 to Viswanathan Anand & in 2014-15, it is given to Sania Mirza.

Literary Awards

Jnanpith Award: It is presented by the Bharatiya Jnanpith, a trust founded by the publishers of the The Times of India. The award was instituted in 1961, and its first recipient, in 1965, was the Malayalam writer G. Sankara Kurup. For the year 2014, it was awarded to Bhalchandra Nemade.

Vyas Samman:  First awarded in 1991, it is awarded annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation. To be eligible for the award, the literary work must be in the Hindi language and have been published in the past 10 years.  In 1991, it was given to Dr. Ram Vilas Sharma & for the year 2014 it was given to Kamal Kishore Goyenka.

Saraswati Samman:  for outstanding prose or poetry literary works in any Indian language listed in Schedule VIII of the Constitution of India. Instituted in 1991 by the K. K. Birla Foundation.
In 1991, it was given to Harivansh Rai Bachchan & for the year 2014, Veerappa Moily was awarded with this award.

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 International Gandhi Peace Prize a) The Government of India launched the International Gandhi Peace Prize in 1995 on the occasion of the 1...

Current Affairs for NIACL AO Main Exam

Q1. Who has won fourth title at the Yonex-Sunrise 83rd Senior Nationals recently?
 Sourabh Verma
 Chirag Shetty
 Saina Nehwal
 Pranaav Jerry Chopra
 PV Sindhu

Q2. In which city India’s first district cooling system will be build?
 Amaravati
 New Delhi
 Hyderabad
 Mumbai
 Bengaluru

Q3. Which Bank has rolled out the first US bank cryptocurrency?
 Citigroup
 Goldman Sachs
 Wells Fargo
 Bank of America
 JP Morgan

Q4. Which of the following city, 83rd Senior National Badminton Championship was concluded?
 Patna
 Guwahati
 Jaipur
 Bhopal
 Siliguri

Q5. _________________ based international cooling provider, National Central Cooling Company PJSC (Tabreed) has entered into a 30-year concession with Andhra Pradesh Capital Region Development Authority (APCRDA) to build India’s first district cooling system in Amaravati.
 UK
 Germany
 Russia
 UAE
 France

Q6. Who has been conferred the first ever Football Ratna honour by Football Delhi, the association governing the sport in Delhi?
 Sandesh Jhingan
 Bhaichung Bhutia
 Subrata Pal
 Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
 Sunil Chhetri

Q7. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) withdrew the ____________ limit on investments by FPIs in corporate bonds of an entity with a view to encourage more foreign investments.
 40%
 50%
 10%
 20%
 30%

Q8. The government of India gets _________________ crore from Bharat-22 Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) by additional offering.
 Rs 40000 crores
 Rs 20000 crores
 Rs 10000 crores
 Rs 30000 crores
 Rs 50000 crores

Q9. Eva de Goede from _____________ and Arthur van Doren of _______________ were titled the International Hockey Federation’s Players of the Year for 2018.
 Germany, France
 Netherlands, Belgium
 USA, Austria
 Spain, South Africa
 Argentina, Portugal

Q10. Who has won the International Human Rights Prize?
 Abdul Aziz Muhamat
 Bradley Cooper
 Sanjay Subrahmanyam
 Francois Laborde
 Sitanshu Yashashchandra

Q11. Who has won the Men’s Goalkeeper of the Year Award by the International Hockey Federation’s recently?\
 Maddie Hinch
 Alyson Annan
 Shane McLeod
 Vincent Vanasch
 Arthur de Sloover

Q12. Who has become the First Indian Woman Flight Engineer of the Indian Air Force(IAF)?
 Hina Jaiswal
 Surekha Yadav
 Preethi Alandur
 Sarla Thakral
 Akriti Thakkar

Q13. Who has been appointed as Controller, Assistant Secretary-General for Programme Planning, Budget and Finance in the management strategy, policy and compliance department in UN?
 PV Bharathi
 Pradeep Singh Kharola
 Ruchira Kamboj
 PC Mody
 Chandramouli Ramanathan

Q14. The government appointed Air India chief managing director and Chairperson ________________ the secretary of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
 Sushil Chandra
 Chandramouli Ramanathan
 Pradeep Singh Kharola
 C Ramanathan
 Dilip Sadarangani

Q15. A book ‘Simplicity & Wisdom’ written by _________________ was launched at Parmarth Ashram in Kumbh Mela.
 AR Rahman
 Dinesh Shahra
 Keshari Nath Tripathi
 Swami Chidanand Saraswati
 MK Rao












SOLUTIONS

1.C
2.A
3.E
4.B
5.D
6.E
7.D
8.C
9.B
10.A
11.D
12.A
13.E
14.C
15.B

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Q1. Who has won fourth title at the Yonex-Sunrise 83rd Senior Nationals recently?  Sourabh Verma  Chirag Shetty  Saina Nehwal  Pranaav ...

English Quiz (Sentence Improvement) for IBPS 2019 Exams

Direction (1-15): Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence meaningfully correct. Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark “No Error” as your answer.

Q1. Several instances of toxic alcohol poisoning in India, including the Malvani hooch tragedy in Mumbai in 2015 that killed 106 people, have been attributed for the lack of affordable liquor for the poor.

 have been attributed to the lack of
 have been attribute to the lack of
 have been attributed to the lacking of
 has been attributed to the lack of
 No Error

Q2. Toxicity often comes from drinking methanol, which resulting in blindness, tissue damage or death.
 which results in blind
 which results in blindness
 who results in blindness
 whose results in blindness
 No Error

Q3. The death of more than 100 people to toxic alcohol in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand has expose the thriving sale of illicit liquor in the region.
 has exposing the thriving sale of
 has exposed the thrive sale of
 has exposed the thriving sale of
 has been exposed the thriving sale of
 No Error

Q4. Despite it’s ambitious targets, NDA’s ‘Make in India’ has failed to improve investment, employment, and exports in India’s manufacturing sector.
 Despite its ambition targets
 Despite its ambitious targeted
 Inspite its ambitious targets
 Despite its ambitious targets
 No Error

Q5. When the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) swept into power in 2014, one of its first acts was to launch the ‘Make in India’ initiative with the ambitious vow of converting India into a global manufacturing hub.
 vow of convert India into a global manufacturing hub.
 vow of converting India into a global manufacture hub.
 vow of converting India into a global manufactured hub.
 vow of converted India into a global manufacturing hub.
 No Error

Q6. At a time when the government is subsidizing flights to help the common man fly, a parallel system that makes cancellation and rescheduling a revenue-earning tool should be nixing.
 a revenue-earning tool should be nixed.
 a revenue-earning tools should be nixed.
 a revenue-earning tool will be nixed.
 a revenue-earning tool was be nixed.
 No Error

Q7. Airlines in India charge as much as 50% to 90% of the total ticket cost in cancel and rescheduling charges.
 in cancellation and reschedule charges.
 in cancellation and rescheduling charges.
 in cancellation and rescheduling charged.
 in cancel and reschedule charges.
 No Error

Q8. Some of you may be surprised to knowing that despite all the noise surrounding the Rafale aircraft, there is not a shred of evidence yet that its purchase is a financial scam.
 to knows that despite all the noise
 to known that despite all the noise
 to know that despite all the noise
 to know that despite of all the noise
 No Error

Q9. Cities are declared ‘non-attainment’ if they consistent fail to meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for PM10 (particulate matter that is 10 microns or less in diameter) or Nitrogen Dioxide over a period of five years.
 if they consistently failing to meet
 if they consistently fail to meeting
 if they consistently fail to have meet
 if they consistently fail to meet
 No Error

Q10. In India, the media can be influential when it comes to public health issues, especially those that affect the middle classes and above, and air quality is an obvious campaign issue.
 can be influential when it comes to public healthy
 can been influential when it comes to public health
 can be influence when it comes to public health
 can be influential when it come to public health
 No Error

Q11. Tech Mahindra shares today rose closer to their 52-week high after the company said that its board will meet on February 21 to considered a share buyback proposal.
 to consider a share buyback proposal.
 to considering a share buyback proposal.
 to have consider a share buyback proposal.
 to consider a share buyback propose.
 No Error

Q12. A share buyback is a process through which a company purchases equity from its shareholders, usually at a price near to or higher then the prevailing market price.
 high than the prevailing market price.
 higher than the prevailing market price.
 higher than the prevail market price.
 highly than the prevailing market price.
 No Error

Q13. In the absence of more productive manufacturing jobs, to many Indians continued to depend on agriculture for their livelihoods.
 too many Indians continue too
 too many India continue to
 too many Indians continue to
 too much Indians continues to
 No Error

Q14. Notional rent is the rent that you are assumed to have earned under the Income Tax Act, 1961 even you don’t actually earn any rent on a property.
 even if you don’t actually earn any rented on a property.
 even if you don’t actual earn any rent on a property.
 even if you don’t actually earns any rent on a property.
 even if you don’t actually earn any rent on a property.
 No Error

Q15. A populous and demographically young country like India has a lot to gain if the expanding working-age population can join the labour force and is provided with gainful employment.
 if the expand working-age population can join the labour force
 if the expanding working-age population can joined the labour force
 if the expanding working-age population can joining the labour force
 if the expanding working-age population can join the labour forced
 No Error












SOLUTIONS

1.A
2.B
3.C
4.D
5.E
6.A
7.B
8.C
9.D
10.E
11.A
12.B
13.C
14.D
15.E

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Direction (1-15): Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the se...

Reasoning Questions For SBI PO 2019

Directions (1-5): In the question below are given four statements followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q1.Statements:

Some apple is litchi
Some litchi is mango
No mango is banana
Some banana is orange
Conclusions:
I. Some orange can never be mango
II. All apple being banana is a possibility.
 Only I follows
 Only II follows
 Either I or II follow
 Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follows

Q2.Statements:
No river is ocean
no ocean is sea
All ocean is glacier
Only lake is glacier
Conclusions:
I. Some lake being sea is a possibility
II. All river can never be sea.
 Only I follows
 Only II follows
 Either I or II follow
 Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follows

Q3.Statements:
All mustard are olive
only olive is sunflower
No sunflower is coconut
Some avocado are coconut
Conclusions:
I. Some avocado can never be sunflower
II. Some mustard can never be avocado
 Only I follows
 Only II follows
 Either I or II follow
 Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follows

Q4.Statements:
Some lily is rose
all rose is hibiscus
Some hibiscus is lotus
No lotus is marigold
Conclusions:
I. no marigold is rose
II. Some hibiscus is rose is a possibility.
 Only I follows
 Only II follows
 Either I or II follow
 Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follows

Q5.Statements:
all delhi is Mumbai
All Mumbai is chennai
No delhi is guwahati
No Mumbai is surat
Conclusions:
I. no delhi is surat
II. Some surat being Guwahati is a possibility.
 Only I follows
 Only II follows
 Either I or II follow
 Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follows

Directions (6-10) In these questions relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the statements and then decide which of the following conclusion follow from the given statements and mark your answer as:

Q6. Statements:

A=B>C≥D>F;C>M;O≥B
Conclusions:
(I) O≥F
(II) M>F
 Only II follows
 Only I follows
 Either I or II follows
 Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follows

Q7. Statements:
N>T≤R=J≥C;C>L;P>N;I>R
Conclusions:
(I) I>L
(II) P>T
 Only II follows
 Only I follows
 Either I or II follows
 Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follows

Q8. Statements:
J ≥ Z > P = K > Q ; F > Z ; R < K ; M > J
Conclusions:
I. M>R
II. M=R
 If only conclusion I follows.
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or II follows.
 If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
 If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q9. Statements:
A > E ≤ D = Q > M > R ; T > D
Conclusions:
I. A>M
II. D<R
 If only conclusion I follows.
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or II follows.
 If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
 If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q10. Statements:
T < R > P ; P = Q ≥ V = S ; V ≥ U
Conclusions:
I. Q=S
II. R>U
 If only conclusion I follows.
 If only conclusion II follows.
 If either conclusion I or II follows.
 If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
 If both conclusions I and II follow.

Directions(11-15) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

There are 9 girls namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I living in a seven-floored girls hostel such that bottommost is 1st floor then 2nd floor and so on... Only 2 floors are doubly occupied, rest are singly occupied. Also the odd numbered doubly occupied floor is above the even numbered doubly occupied floor. Neither topmost or lowermost floor is doubly occupied. I does not lives on an odd numbered floor or on a doubly occupied floor .E lives on topmost floor. As many persons live between E and F as between  F and G .Only one floor is between A and H. H lives above A, who lives on an singly occupied floor. B and C live on 2nd floor .A lives on 3rd floor. More than 1 floor is between D and E.

Q11. Who among the following represents double occupancy floor ?

 6th floor
 A
 G
 3rd floor
 None of these

Q12. How many floors are there in between the floor occupied by E and I ?
 one
 two
 three
 none
 more than three

Q13. Who among the following lives on 1st floor?
 A
 C
 F
 D
 None of these

Q14. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, which among the following does not belong to the group?
 H
 C
 F
 B
 G

Q15. If E and I exchange their positions then how many persons live below E?
 two
 one
 none
 three
 more than three











SOLUTIONS

1.E
2.A
3.A
4.D
5.E
6.D
7.E
8.A
9.D
10.B
11.C
12.B
13.D
14.C
15.E

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-5): In the question below are given four statements followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given...

IBPS PO Quantitative Aptitude Probability For Prelims

Q1. A bag contains 510 oranges out of which 70/17% oranges are spoiled by a naughty boy. Find the probability of getting a good orange from the bag.
 153/170
 161/170
 163/170
 3/5
 11/17

Q2. 3 unbiased coins are tossed. Find the probability of getting exactly two ‘Heads’.
 1/8
 1/4
 3/8
 1/2
 5/8

Q3. What is the probability of selecting 2 black balls from a basket containing 5 black and 4 red balls?
 5/18
 7/18
 13/18
 5/36
 11/18

Q4. A box contains 25 bulbs out of which 5 are defective. 3 bulbs are to be delivered to a customer. What is the probability that he get one defective bulb?
 19/46
 25/51
 44/77
 21/46
 17/46

Q5. In a bag there are three pink and five white bolls. Three bolls are chosen randomly. What is the probability that at least one is pink and atmost two are white?
 11/28
 23/28
 13/28
 15/28
 23/14

Q6. Two bags A and B contain 7 red and 6 blue balls respectively. Some blue balls from bag B are taken out and kept into bag A. If probability of selecting two blue ball from bag A is 1/15, find the number of blue balls drawn from bag B.
 2
 4
 3
 5
 6

Q7. Three persons Dev, Deepak and Dudhiya Singh run a race. The probability of completing the race by them is 1/3,2/5 and 4/5 respectively. Find the probability that at least two persons complete the race.
 12/25
 38/75
 17/35
 26/49
 37/75

Q8. A committee of five persons is to be chosen from a group of 9 people. The probability that a certain married couple will either serve together or not at all is:
 5/9
 4/9
 13/18
 11/27
 4/15
Directions (9-12): Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it.

The Bangalore office of Infosys has 1200 executives. Out of these, 880 subscribe to the Time magazine and 650 subscribe to the Economist. Each executive may subscribe to either the Time or the Economist or both. If an executive is picked at random, find the probability that

Q9. He has subscribed to the Time magazine.
 11/15
 11/12
 7/15
 7/11
 4/15

Q10. He has subscribed to the Economist.
 13/21
 13/20
 13/24
 12/30
 11/24

Q11. He has subscribed to both magazines.
 22/40
 11/40
 12/20
 4/20
 13/40

Q12. If among the executives who have subscribed to the Time magazine, an executive is picked at random. What is the probability that he has also subscribed to the Economist?
 3/8
 5/8
 2/3
 1/8
 7/8

Q13. What is the probability that card drawn at random from a pack of cards is either red or a king?
 15/26
 7/13
 27/52
 3/13
 11/52

Q14. The probability of Sharmila and Shushma passing an exam is 2/5 and 3/5, respectively. Find the probability that at least one of them passes the exam.
 1/25
 1/5
 19/25
 1/2
 17/25

Q15. A number is selected at random from the first 30 natural numbers. What is the probability that it is either a multiple of 2 or a multiple of 3?
 13/30
 2/3
 2/5
 17/30
 23/30












SOLUTIONS

1.C
2.C
3.A
4.A
5.B
6.C
7.B
8.B
9.A
10.C
11.B
12.A
13.A
14.C
15.B

Label :
5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Q1. A bag contains 510 oranges out of which 70/17% oranges are spoiled by a naughty boy. Find the probability of getting a good orange from...

Vocabulary for Bank Exams: 2019

1.IRATE : क्रुद्ध
Meaning: tremendously angry
Synonyms: annoyed, furious
Antonyms: happy, calm
Example:The irate judge had the unruly defendant removed from the courtroom.

2.GAUNT : कृश
Meaning:extremely skinny, typically because of illness or starvation
Synonyms:grim, thin
Antonyms:fat, heavy
Example:After being held in a dark basement for three months, the prisoner was gaunt and weak.

3.BENIGNANT :  कृपालु
Meaning: having or marked by sympathy and consideration for others.
Synonyms: benevolent, compassionate, humane, kindhearted.
Antonyms: atrocious, brutal, callous, fiendish.
Example: The queen had a benignant reputation and was loved for her caring treatment of others.

4.FARRAGO:  संमिश्रण
Meaning: a confused mixture.
Synonyms: mishmash, jumble, hodgepodge, turmoil.
Antonyms: constituent, ravel, sequence, categorization.
Example: The present gun law is a farrago of nonsense as most of it is unenforceable.

5.LENITY :  उदारता
Meaning: kind or compassionate treatment especially towards someone who is undeserving of it.
Synonyms: clemency, forbearance, philanthropy, empathy.
Antonyms: requital, vindictiveness, virulence, vitriol.
Example:This savage punishment was approved by the higher officers of the navy, who showed great lenity to men of their own rank.

6.SUPERANNUATED : वयोवृद्ध
Meaning: outdated or obsolete through age or new developments;
Synonyms: anachronistic, antiquated, defunct, obsolete.
Antonyms: modern, modish, newfangled, modernized.
Example: The information on my website was superannuated and needed updating.

7.ALLEGE : अभियोग लगाना
Meaning: To say that someone has done something illegal or wrong without giving proof
Synonyms:charge, declare
Antonyms:withdraw, object
Example:She is alleged to have been at the center of an international drug ring.

8.PROLIFERATION : प्रसार
Meaning:rapid increase in the number or amount of something
Synonyms: generation, propagation
Antonyms:reduction
Example:The proliferation of technology over the last 100 years has happened so quickly and caused many societal changes.

9.AMNESTY : आम माफ़ी
Meaning:a formal pardon or reprieve given to one who has committed a criminal or political offense
Synonyms:forgiveness, immunity
Antonyms:vulnerability
Example:Although the governor claimed to be an honest man of the people, he did not hesitate to give his wealthy friend amnesty for a tax related crime.

10.COALITION : गठबंधन
Meaning: the union of diverse things into one body or form or group
Synonyms: alliance, union
Antonyms: discord,rift
Example:A coalition between Liberals and Conservatives
5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 1.IRATE : क्रुद्ध Meaning: tremendously angry Synonyms: annoyed, furious Antonyms: happy, calm Example:The irate judge had the unruly d...

Quick Study Notes on Marketing

Keeping in context the upcoming SBI PO 2015 in mind, here we are posting some quick notes on Marketing. We hope that the post will be helpful to you all. All the Best..!!

1. A lead means – A prospective buyer

2. Benchmark means – set standards

3. Customization means – specific products for each customer


4. Customer retention means – customers dealing with same organization for long time

5. Value Added Service means – additional service
6. The sequence of the sales process is – Lead, call, presentation and sale

7. "POS" means – Point Of Sale.

8. Market Research is useful for – deciding proper marketing strategies

9. A ‘call’ means – visiting prospective customer.

10. Online marketing is the function of - I.T Department

11. Customization is useful for – Designing customer specific products.

12. The key challenge to market driven strategy is – Delivering superior values to the customers.

13. Effective selling skills depends on – knowledge level of the sales team.

14.  Generation of sales leads can be improved by – increasing personal and professional contacts.

15.  A market plan is – Documented marketing strategies

16.  Marketing channel mean – Delivery outlets.

17.  Social Marketing means - marketing for a social cause.

18.  Service marketing means - Relationship Marketing

19.  Market driven Strategies include – positioning the organization and its brand in the market place.

20.  Innovation in marketing means – Creativity

21.  Personal loan can de canvassed among – Salaried persons

22.  A presentation means – explaining the utility of products

23.  Conversion means – converting a prospective client into a buyer

24.  Modern style of marketing include – digital marketing, telemarketing, e-commerce, e-mail solicitation

25.  e-marketing is same as – digital marketing

26.  Aggressive marketing is necessitated due to – increased competition

27.  Efficient marketing style requires – proper planning, good communication skill, team work, knowledge of products.

28.  The performance of a sales person depends on – ability and willingness of the sales person.

29.  The sole aim of marketing is to – increase sales.

30.  Lead generation means – likely sources for prospective clients.

31.  CRM – Customer Relationship Management

32.  CRM is – A pre sale activity/ a tool for lead generation/ an ongoing daily activity/the task of a DSA.

33.  Bancassuranse can be sold to – All existing and prospective bank customers.

34.  A successful “Blue Ocean Strategy” requires – effective communication/innovative skills/motivation.

35.  Cross selling is the basic function of all sales persons.

36.  Data mining means – analysing the data stored with the back office staff.

37.  SME means – small and medium enterprises

38.  The first step in the transaction processing cycle is – data entry

39.  Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as – the crime of spoofing

40.  A presentation means: Explain the utility products

41.  Relationship Marketing is useful for:  Cross-selling of products

42.  Good Public Relation indicate: Improved marketing skills, Improved brand image,   Improved customer service.

43.  Networking helps in marking marketing function: An easy task

44.  Delivery channel means — Place where products are made available to the buyers

45.  One of the methods for market monitoring is — To discuss with other sales persons

46.  A scenario in which a customer has too much awareness of the Brand is called: Over Positioning

47.  Creating a distinctive place in the minds of customer means: Brand Positioning

48.  Say’s Law of Markets states that — Supply creates its own demand

49.  Gresham’s Law states that — Bad money drives good money out of circulation

50.  Investment is defined as a— Change in the stock of capital




5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Keeping in context the upcoming SBI PO 2015 in mind, here we are posting some quick notes on Marketing. We hope that the post will be helpf...

IBPS English Quiz (Cloze Test) for 2019 Exams

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage and attempt the questions as directed.

As India mourns the death of 40 CRPF personnel in Thursday’s terrorist strike in Jammu and Kashmir’s Pulwama district, it is clear that the attack was meant to (A).............. The Jaish-e-Mohammed, the Pakistan-based terrorist organisation which has orchestrated numerous strikes in the Kashmir Valley, has taken responsibility (B)............................................... in any attack in the State. Investigations should yield a better picture, but it is a matter of extreme concern that a suicide bomber could time his attack to hit a security convoy. (C) There is no question that Pakistan bears the onus to explaining why Masood Azhar, the leader of the Jaish-e-Mohammed, enjoys such freedoms on its territory, if not outright support from the establishment. Certainly, diplomatic backing by Pakistan and China has been crucial in defeating efforts at the United Nations to put Azhar on the list of banned terrorists. (D) Early details indicate that a sports utility vehicle targeted with a huge quantity of explosives laden  the convoy of 78 buses carrying about 2,500 soldiers from Jammu to Kashmir. The video of the presumed suicide bomber too hints at an altered standard operating procedure meant to provoke and (E) escalate tensions. Forensics teams have already begun work and answers to the disturbing questions the attack has raised on intelligence gathering, dissemination and (F).................... in the Valley must be pieced together.

However, if the terrorists have acted from an updated playbook, New Delhi’s response must not play into their plans with reflexive and precipitate official action. India has withdrawn the Most Favoured Nation status to Pakistan in a signal that it will not wait for preliminaries (G)……………………….. (H) Coercive diplomacy is likely to continue, but to be effective the effort needs a wider net, especially at a time when the U.S. is seeking Pakistan’s help in firming up a deal with the Afghan Taliban. (I) Beijing too must not, and cannot, evade questions about its previous blocking of action at the UN, specifically against Azhar. Post-Uri, after terrorist attacks the air is always thick with calls for retributive cross-border strikes. The past history of limited, if any, returns from such precipitate action must serve as a cautionary check. Instead, the effort must be to isolate Pakistan for its support to the Jaish and seek (J) substantive action, to effectively upgrade intelligence and plug security gaps, and to win the confidence of the local population in the Valley. Thursday’s attack was meant to provoke and polarise the country. New Delhi’s response must, instead, be to isolate the perpetrators and keep the peace on Indian territory. (Source: The Hindu)

Q1. Which of the following words given in the options should come at the place marked as (A) in the above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the blanks given in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.


(I) The pictures of the victim’s body are sure to …………………………. feelings of anger within the jury.
(II) Nobody expected the teen’s death to …………………………………. a national investigation into the brutality of police force.
 excitin
 provoke
 inspiring
 motivation
 Both (b) and (c)

Q2. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (B) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 for what is now the highest toll of security forces
 for what now the highest toll of security forces
 for what have now the highest toll of security force
 for what is now the highly toll of security forces
 None of the Above

Q3. In the passage given, a sentence (C) is given in BOLD. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error then choose option (E) as your answer.
 There is no question that Pakistan bears the onus to explaining
 why Masood Azhar, the leader of the Jaish-e-Mohammed
 enjoys such freedoms on its territory,
 if not outright support from the establishment.
 No Error

Q4. The sentence given in (D) has four words given in BOLD. Amongst the given BOLD words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.
 indicate-carrying
 targeted-laden
 carrying-laden
 indicate-targeted
 No Change required

Q5. A word is given in bold in (E). Choose the word which should replace the word given in bold to make the sentence correct and meaningful. If no change is required, choose option (E) as your answer.
 shrink
 plunging
 growth
 supressing
 No change is required

Q6. Which of the following words given in the options should come at the place marked as (F) in the above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the blanks given in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(I) In order to send a message to the brain, the ……………………………….. between the senses and the brain can be accomplished if the message is sent straight to the brain to interpret.
(II) The dance needs close ………………………….. between two dancers.
 institute
 imbalanced
 coordination
 agitate
 None of the Above

Q7. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (G) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 in the effort to isolation Pakistan
 in the effort to isolating Pakistan
 in the effort for isolate Pakistan
 in the effort to isolate Pakistan
 None of the Above

Q8. In the passage given, a sentence (H) is given in BOLD. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there is no error then choose option (E) as your answer.
 Coercive diplomacy is likely to continue,
 but to be effective the effort needs a wider net,
 especially at a time when the U.S. is seeking Pakistan’s
 help in firming up a deal with the Afghan Taliban.
 No Error

Q9. The sentence given in (I) has four words given in BOLD. Amongst the given BOLD words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.
 evade-blocking
 blocking-action
 action-against
 evade-against
 No change required

Q10. A word is given in bold in (J). Choose the word which should replace the word given in bold without changing the meaning of the sentence. If no change is possible, choose option (E) as your answer.
 considered
 sabotage
 unfruitful
 bewildered
 No change is possible

Directions (11-15): Read the following passage and attempt the questions as directed.

The death of more than 100 people to toxic alcohol in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand has exposed the (A)............ sale of illicit liquor in the region. India remains among the countries with a high number of alcohol-related deaths, with poor governance, corruption and distorted policies (B)............................................................... The governments in U.P. and Uttarakhand cannot evade responsibility for the death of so many people, the majority of them in Saharanpur district of U.P. (C) Preliminary investigation has confirmed the well-entrenched system of illicit liquor vends that are known to exist in the region; several factories producing hooch in U.P. were unearthed within a couple of days in the episode. (D) Moreover, although several liquor-related deaths have been taking place, it took this illicit number of casualties for the authorities to acknowledge the presence of free-flowing staggering liquor. The Yogi Adityanath government prides itself on its law and order measures but its failure to crack down on these dens exposes the hollow claims. It has tried to put the (E) blame for previous incidents on political opponents hatching conspiracies.

Q11. Which of the following words given in the options should come at the place marked as (A) in the above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the blanks given in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.


(I) Airlines reportedly are cracking down on this ……………………… but illegal trade.
(II) The once …………………………. downtown has fallen into steep decline since the new mall was built.
 declining
 languish
 unhealthy
 thriving
 infirm

Q12. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (B) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
 contributing to such periodic tragedies
 contribution to such periodic tragedies
 contributing too such periodic tragedies
 contribute to such periodic tragedies
 None of the Above

Q13. In the passage given, a sentence (C) is given in BOLD. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error then choose option (E) as your answer.
 Preliminary investigation has confirmed the well-entrenched system
 of illicit liquor vends that are known to exist in the region;
 several factories producing hooch in U.P. were unearthed
 within a couple of days in the episode.
 No Error

Q14. The sentence given in (D) has four words given in BOLD. Amongst the given BOLD words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.
 have-illicit
 acknowledge-staggering
 illicit-staggering
 have-staggering
 No Change required

Q15. A word is given in bold in (E). Choose the word which should replace the word given in bold without changing the meaning of the sentence. If no change is required, choose option (E) as your answer.
 benefit
 accountability
 applause
 exculpation
 commendation












SOLUTIONS

1.B
2.A
3.A
4.B
5.E
6.C
7.D
8.E
9.E
10.E
11.D
12.A
13.D
14.C
15.B

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-10): Read the following passage and attempt the questions as directed. As India mourns the death of 40 CRPF personnel in Th...

Reasoning Questions For SBI PO 2019

Directions (1-5): These questions are based on the following arrangement:
D 5 4 I H * $ K E 3 L B @ A R M 1 6 F % J £ 2 7 C G 9

Q1. If the position of ten elements from the right end is reversed then which of the following will be the fifth to the right of the thirteenth from the right end?

 %
 F
 C
 G
 None of these

Q2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
 KL3
 F£J
 R61
 I$*
 @MA

Q3. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangements each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by another consonant?
 None
 One
 Two
 Three
 More than three

Q4. If all the digits are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourth to the left of the seventh from the right end?
 B
 @
 L
 A
 None of these

Q5. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately followed or immediately preceded by a consonant but not both?
 None
 One
 Two
 Three
 None of these

Directions (6-7): Read the following information and answer the following questions.
Seven persons of the same family are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center. F is wearing Saree and she is unmarried. C is wearing kurta and he is the oldest member in the family. D who is the grandmother of G is married to C. B is the brother of G and son of A. E is the daughter in law of C, who has two child.

Q6. How is G related to C?

 Grandson
 Granddaughter
 Nephew
 Son in law
 Cannot be determined

Q7. How is F related to G?
 Mother
 Aunt
 Uncle
 Father
 None of these

Directions (8-10): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

‘Q + R’ means ‘Q is father of R’
‘Q ÷ R’ means ‘R is brother of Q’
‘Q × R’ means ‘Q is husband of R’
‘Q – R’ means ‘Q is sister of R’

Q8. In the expression B + D – S + C ÷ A, how is A related to B?

 Son
 Daughter
 Grandson
 Can’t be determined
 None of these

Q9. Which of the following expressions shows that Z is sister of X?
 J + Z– L + N ÷ X
 J – N – L ÷ X × Z
 J x L – Z÷ X + N
 J – Z– L + N ÷ X
 None of these

Q10. Which of the following is true for the given expression? ‘P- J + K – L + N ÷ M’
 P is aunt of N’s father
 K is father of M
 N is sister of M
 J is father of N
 None of these

Directions (11-15): Study the given information and answer the questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement.

Input: due 48 getting 26 ear 35 oil 64 share 17 within 56
Step I: within 56 due 48 getting 26 ear 35 oil 64 share 17
Step II: within 56 oil 64 due 48 getting 26 ear 35 share 17
Step III: within 56 oil 64 share 17 due 48 getting 26 ear 35
Step IV: within 56 oil 64 share 17 ear 35 due 48 getting 26
Step V: within 56 oil 64 share 17 ear 35 getting 26 due 48
And Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: butter 28 fly 15 in 45 the 64 sky 32 apple 57


Q11. Which of the following would be the step III after arrangement?

 the 64 in 45 sky 32 apple 57 fly 15 butter 28
 the 64 butter 28 fly 15 in 45 sky 32 apple 57
 in 45 sky 32 the 64 butter 28 fly 15 apple 57
 the 64 in 45 sky 32 butter 28 fly 15 apple 57
 None of these

Q12. In step III, which of the following element would be at 5th position from right end?
 in
 28
 butter
 15
 None of these

Q13.In step IV, which of the following words would be at 5th position to the left of 10th element from the left end?
 fly
 15
 sky
 butter
 None of these

Q14. In step II, ‘in’ is related to ‘butter’ and ‘sky’ is related to ‘apple’. In the same way ‘28’ is related to?
 64
 sky
 15
 butter
 fly

Q15. In which step the elements ‘45 butter’ found in the same order?
 Step I
 Step II
 Step III
 Step V
 None of these












SOLUTIONS

1.C
2.E
3.B
4.A
5.E
6.E
7.B
8.C
9.E
10.A
11.D
12.B
13.C
14.C
15.B

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-5): These questions are based on the following arrangement: D 5 4 I H * $ K E 3 L B @ A R M 1 6 F % J £ 2 7 C G 9 Q1. If t...

Banking Awareness Study Notes (Indian Banks' Association) for Bank Exams

Indian Banks' Association (IBA) set up in 1946 with 22 members to discuss issues of common interests. Over the years, IBA emerged as the Voice of Indian Banking Industry. IBA adopts a consultative approach to give its views on any issue pertaining to the banking sector. The banks voice their views and reach a consensus for the common good of the industry while maintaining the competitive spirit. The policy of IBA is well received by all the stakeholders in the industry. To work proactively for the growth of a healthy, professional and forward-looking banking and financial services industry, in a manner consistent with the public good.
Effort of IBA-
1. Promote sound and progressive banking principles and practices.
2. Assist and provide common services to members.
3. Co-ordinate and co-operate on procedural, legal, technical, administration, professional matters.
4. Collate, classify and circulate statistical and other information.
5. Pool expertise towards common objectives of reduction in costs, increase efficiency, productivity and improve systems, procedures and banking practices.
6. Build Image of banking industry through publicity and public relations.

Managing Committee-
Managing Committee of the Association is its governing body, headed by the Chairman. It consists of 31 members, including Chief Executives, representing Public Sector, Private Sector, Foreign Banks, Co-operative Banks and State Bank of India. Members are elected at the Annual General Meeting and retire by rotation. Day to day administration of IBA is handled by a Chief Executive assisted by other officials.

Focus & Priorities of IBA
IBA has the wide range of consultations with:
1. The Government of India on policy related issues
2. Industry unions on wage negotiations and improving industrial relations
3. Members to encourage inter-bank co-operation and co-ordination
4. Foreign counterparts to widen the horizon and perspectives
5. Other trade bodies for better co-ordination
6. Its constituents and stakeholders for new initiatives
7. The Reserve Bank of India on regulatory issues

Associate Membership of IBA
Eligibility: Any society, association or organization connected with banking, or any financial institution or any co-operative bank or the foreign bank having an office in India and not eligible to become an Ordinary Member.
The Ordinary Members have the voting rights whereas Associate Members have no voting rights.
Associate Membership consists of:
1. Financial Institutions
2. Foreign Banks with their representative offices in India
3. Co-operative Banks and Entities
4. Asset Reconstruction Companies
5. Credit Rating Companies
6. Credit Guarantee Funds
7. Financial Services Companies
8. Payment & Settlement Services Companies
9. Training & Research Institutes
10. Associations & Federations
11. Factoring Companies
12. Development Banks

As on 28th December 2015 the total Membership of the Association is 237
Ordinary: 139
Associate: 98
Total: 237

The members comprise of:-
1. Public Sector Banks
2. Private Sector Banks
3. Foreign Banks having offices in India
4. Co-operative Banks and
5. Regional Rural Banks
Rajeev Rishi is present Chairman of IBA and its headquarter is in Mumbai.
5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Indian Banks' Association (IBA) set up in 1946 with 22 members to discuss issues of common interests. Over the years, IBA emerged as th...

English Quiz for NIACL AO Mains 2019 Exam

Directions (1-5): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/words given below .i.e. one of the sentences/words can be fit into the given blanks. Choose the correct option and complete the given sentences.

Q1. Facilities and opportunities ------------------------------------urban life than what we find in rural existence but there is an acute problem of pollution, noise, lack of adequate water supply, traffic jam, overcrowding and crime in cities.
(a) too move forward are greater in
(b) to move forward are greater into
(c) to move forward are great in
(d) to move forward are greater in
(e) None of the above

Q2. Every year the population of cities is growing by leaps and bounds, increasing pressure on their infrastructure --------------------------------dehumanized rat race.
(a) and reducing life to a
(b) and reducing life too a
(c) and reduce life to a
(d) and reducing life to than
(e) None of the above

Q3. Unfortunately, the search for jobs and ---------------------------------and facilities is leading to large-scale migration of people from rural to urban areas.
(a) the glare off material comforts
(b) the glare of material comforts
(c) the glare of material comforted
(d) them glare of material comforts
(e) None of the above

Q4. Villagers depend on the sale of their agricultural produce on urban markets and city dwellers cannot --------------------------------------essential commodities such as grain, fruits and vegetables from rural regions.
(a) survive without the supply of
(b) survived without the supply of
(c) surviving without the supply of
(d) survive without that supply of
(e) None of the above

Q5.  Development of India --------------------------------harmonious development of villages and cities.
(a) is unthinkable without them
(b) is unthinkable without that
(c) is unthinkable without those
(d) is unthinkable without the
(e) None of the above

Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given which is divided into FOUR parts such that the parts are jumbled and they do not make a meaningful sentence. Rearrange the following parts to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence and choose the correct rearrangement from the options given below each question.

Q6.  way to make people aware (A)/ national integration is a (B)/ about the power of unity (C)/among people living in a country (D)/
(a) BADC
(b) ABDC
(c) BACD
(d) DCBA
(e) No change required

Q7.  India is a country where (A)/ religion, culture, tradition, race, cast, colour, and (B)/ people from various region, (C)/ creed are living together (D)/
(a) ADBC
(b) ACBD
(c) BCDA
(d) BDCA
(e) No change required

Q8. India is famous for its (A)/unity in diversity but it is not (B)/ accept other people’s opinion for development (C)/ true as people here are not ready to (D)/
(a) ABDC
(b) ACBD
(c) DBCA
(d) DCBA
(e) No change required

Q9. implemented by the government of India to bring (A)/ mind which can bring natural unity in diversity among people (B)/artificial unity in diversity however it is only human (C)/various rules and regulations have been planned and (D)/
(a) DABC
(b) BDCA
(c) ABDC
(d) DACB
(e) No change required

Q10. instead of being from different religions (A)/and cultures we should recognize (B)/ strong and prosperous nation (C)/ that all are one in order to build a (D)/
(a) DBCA
(b) DCBA
(c) CBDA
(d) ABDC
(e) No change required

Directions (11-15): In each Question below, a sentence is given with four words given in Bold in the sentence. Among these bold words one may be wrongly spelt. The option of that word is the answer. If all four words are correctly spelt mark e. i.e. 'All are Correct' as the answer.

Q11. My concentration was dsturbed by the sound of a lawnmower outside my office window.
(a) concentration
(b) dsturbed
(c) lawnmower
(d) outside
(e) All are correct

Q12.  The brigt child is much smarter than the other children in her classroom.
(a) brigt
(b) child
(c) smarter
(d) children
(e) All are correct

Q13. Because he is so bright, Brandon is able to pass every test without studying.
(a) because
(b) able
(c) every
(d) without
(e) All are correct

Q14.  The teacher’s job was to enlighten her students on the varios theories of physical science.
(a) job
(b) enlighten
(c) varios
(d) theories
(e) All are correct

Q15. The article was written to inform and enlighten readers on the dangers of smoking.
(a) article
(b) written
(c) readers
(d) dangers
(e) All are correct












SOLUTIONS

1.D
2.A
3.B
4.A
5.D
6.C
7.B
8.A
9.D
10.D
11.B
12.A
13.E
14.C
15.E

5 Banking and SSC : February 2019 Directions (1-5): In each of the questions given below an incomplete sentence which must be filled/completed with one of the sentences/word...
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