GK Trick

General Awareness Questions for NICL AO Mains 2017

Q1. As per the recent announcement of the government, from May 1, 2017, petrol and diesel prices were changed every day in sync with international rates first in five cities. Which of the following city is not among them?
(a) Puducherry
(b) Vizag
(c) Udaipur
(d) Lucknow
(e) Jamshedpur

Q2. Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh N. Chandrababu Naidu has recently announced the re-launch of a scheme for upliftment and all-round development of people belonging to the Backwards Classes. What is the name of that scheme?
(a) Adarana Scheme
(b) Aradhya Scheme
(c) Bandhan Scheme
(d) Utkarsh Scheme
(e) Utthaan Scheme

Q3. The pink patrol cars called the 'Pink Hoysalas' and the Suraksha mobile phone app was launched recently as part of an effort to improve the safety and security of women in which of the following cities?
(a) Varanasi
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Gandhinagar
(d) Chandigarh
(e) New Delhi

Q4. The World Bank has recently approved a $375 million loan to India’s first inland water transport fairway National Waterway 1 (NW1) project. This project is based on which one of the following Rivers?
(a) Brahmaputra River
(b) Beas River
(c) Ganga River
(d) Godavari River
(e) Yamuna River

Q5. Malala Yousafzai has recently become the youngest Nobel Prize laureate to address parliament of which of the following countries?
(a) Australia
(b) Germany
(c) Spain
(d) Malaysia
(e) Canada

Q6. The Doing Business Report” is prepared by which of the following organisations every year?
(a) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) World Bank (WB)
(c) New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(e) None of the given options is true

Q7. Which of the following cannot be called as a debt instrument as referred in financial transactions?
(a) Certificate of Deposits
(b) Bonds
(c) Stock
(d) Commercial Paper
(e) None of the given options is true

Q8. Which of the following is not a type of cheque issued by an individual?
(a) Bearer Cheque
(b) Crossed Cheque
(c) Order Cheque
(d) Savings Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true

Q9. Name the port that has recently topped the list in the First-Ever Ranking of Ports on Sanitation Parameters in the exercise that was undertaken during the ‘Swachhta Pakhwada’.
(a) Bunbury Port
(b) Fremantle Port
(c) Chittagong port
(d) Haldia Port
(e) Mundra Port

Q10. Jharkhand Police has initiated __________ programme, recently to enlighten children in Naxal-affected areas in the Palamau district of Jharkhand.
(a) Tuta Ek Tara
(b) Muskurahatey
(c) Tare Zameen Par
(d) Naadan Parindey
(e) None of the given options is true

Q11. Name the Public lender, which has joined hands with Department of Posts to promote Point of Sale (POS) machines for cashless transactions at post office counters.
(a) PNB
(b) UBI
(c) BOB
(d) SBI
(e) BOI

Q12. Name the Small Finance Bank that has recently launched a social deposit scheme called 'Hrudaya Deposit scheme' in Thrissur, Kerala.
(a) Karur Vysya Bank
(b) Janalakshmi Financial Services Private Limited
(c) ESAF Small Finance Bank
(d) Utkarsh Micro Finance Private Ltd
(e) Equitas Holdings P Limited

Q13. The International Day of Older Persons is observed on?
(a) 02nd October
(b) 24th October
(c) 16th October
(d) 31st October
(e) 01st October

Q14. The Mahabodhi Vihar, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is a Buddhist temple located at which of the following place?
(a) Guwahati, Assam
(b) Deoghar, Jharkhand
(c) Patna, Bihar
(d) Darbhanga, Bihar
(e) Bodh Gaya, Bihar

Q15. Guwahati is situated on the South Bank which of the following river?
(a) Sone
(b) Hooghly
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Teesta
(e) Ganga











Solutions

1.D
2.A
3.B
4.C
5.E
6.B
7.C
8.D
9.D
10.C
11.D
12.C
13.E
14.E
15.C





5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. As per the recent announcement of the government, from May 1, 2017, petrol and diesel prices were changed every day in sync with intern...

English Questions For IBPS PO Exam 2017

Directions (1-5): In each question below, the word at the top of the question is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.

Q1. ENTER
(a) He was assigned the task of entering the names of all eligible voters.
(b) She decided to enter her child into the best school in the neighborhood.
(c) His parents advised him to acquire an MBA before entering upon a career.
(d) When money is involved other considerations should not enter.
(e) All sentences are correct.

Q2. WITHDRAW
(a) The steno was asked to withdraw the offending words from the letter she typed.
(b) The college withdrew his academic credit after it was established that he had copied in the test.
(c) The minister withdrew his name from the list of nominees.
(d) After the loss of her husband she had withdrawn farther and farther into herself.
(e) All sentences are correct.

Q3. DRAW
(a) People are afraid that the festival will draw undesirable elements to the town.
(b) The deposits are expected to draw interest close to 10 percent.
(c) The teacher drew the children into the room to see the pictures.
(d) To avoid confusion later, a list was drawn of all those who would attend the function.
(e) All sentences are correct.

Q4. STACK
(a) There were stacks of books on the bedside table and floor.
(b) The committee is stacked with members from energy-producing states.
(c) She is continually stacked by headaches.
(d) The convict tried to stack the jury.
(e) All sentences are correct.

Q5. DEVOLVE
(a) His death devolved the end of an era in superlative cinematic techniques.
(b) The senator devolved the duties of office upon a group of aides.
(c) The estate devolved to an heir that everybody had assumed to be dead.
(d) After several hours the discussion had devolved into a shouting match.
(e) All sentences are correct.

Directions (6-15): In each of the following questions, a part of the paragraph or sentence has been Bold. From the choices given to you, you are required to choose the one, which would best replace the Bold part in terms of grammatical usage.

Q6. The nature of our party system has changed in the past few decades, and the lesson of the past decade had been that the party that did not hold the White House had every incentive to refuse to co-operate with the president's party.
(a) was that the party that does not hold the White House had every incentive
(b) is that the party that does not hold the White House has every incentive
(c) has been that the party that had not held the White House had every incentive
(d) had been that the party that did not hold the White House had every incentive
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q7. Looking at the path of German GDP and the fact that total private sector hours didn't fall by that much, it becomes clear that Germany's unique recession and recovery was about more than just its choice in labour market policies.
(a) Looking at the path of German GDP and that total private sector hours didn't fall much,
(b) Looking at the path of German GDP and the fact that total private sector hours didn't fall much,
(c) When one looks at the path of German GDP and the fact that total private sector hours didn't fall much,
(d) When one is looking at the path of German GDP and that total private sector hours didn't fall much,
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q8. The Beijing Language and Culture University Press, the largest publisher of Chinese-language textbooks, says South Korea and Japan are their biggest customers.
(a) say South Korea and Japan are their biggest customers.
(b) says South Korea and Japan are it's biggest customers.
(c) says South Korea and Japan are their biggest customers.
(d) says South Korea and Japan are its biggest customers.
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q9. There are two pieces to Mr Keats' argument; that English is open-source as other languages are not; and that is why it has spread.
(a) Mr Keats' argument, that English is open-source as other languages are not and that
(b) Mr Keats' argument: that English is open-source as other languages are not, and that that
(c) Mr Keats' argument - that English is open-source as other languages are not-and that
(d) Mr Keats' argument; that English is open-source as other languages are not; and that that
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q10. The number of foreigners going to India for fertility treatments, specially surrogacy, has dramatically increased in recent years.
(a) especially surrogacy, have dramatically increased in past years.
(b) especially surrogacy, has dramatically increased in recent years.
(c) specially surrogacy, have dramatically increased in recent years.
(d) specially surrogacy, have shown dramatic improvement in recent years.
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q11. The LHC is a magnificent engineering project, who's many "gee-whiz" features have been widely reported.
(a) whose many "gee-whiz" feature have been widely reported.
(b) who's "gee-whiz" features has been reported widely.
(c) whose many "gee-whiz" features has been widely reported.
(d) who's many "gee-whiz" features have been widely reported.
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q12. Venezuelan President Hugo Chavez, outspoken as usual, compared the choice of Liu for the Nobel Prize with Obama.
(a) compared the choice of Liu for Nobel Prize with that of Obama.
(b) compared the choice of Liu with Obama for the Nobel Prize.
(c) compared the choice of Liu for the Nobel Prize to that of Obama.
(d) compared the choice of Liu and Obama to the Nobel Prize.
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q13. The OECD expects average GDP growth among their mostly rich members to slow from 2.8% in 2010 and 2.3% in 2011, before bouncing back to 2.8% in 2012.
(a) their most rich members to slow from 2.8% in 2010 and 2.3% in 2011,
(b) their mostly rich members to slow from 2.8% in 2010 and 2.3% in 2011,
(c) its most rich members to slow between 2.8% in 2010 to 2.3% in 2011,
(d) its mostly rich members to slow from 2.8% in 2010 to 2.3% in 2011,
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q14. A sphere cannot be represented on a flat plane without distortion, which will mean that all map projections will distort in one way or another.
(a) which means all map projections distort in one way or another.
(b) that means all map projections will distort one way or another.
(c) which will mean that all map projections distorts one way or other.
(d) which means all map projections will distort in one way or others.
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.

Q15. The blame for rising obesity rates have been pinned on many things, including having more calorific diet, the spread of processed food, a lack of exercise and modern man's generally more stressful lot.
(a) has been pinned on many things, including a more calorific diet.
(b) have been pinned to many things, including more calorific diets,
(c) have been pinned on many things, including a calorie rich diet,
(d) has been pinned on many things: having a more calorific diet,
(e) None of the above replace the bold part.











Solutions

1.B
2.A
3.D
4.C
5.A
6.B
7.C
8.D
9.B
10.B
11.A
12.C
13.D
14.A
15.A




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Directions (1-5): In each question below, the word at the top of the question is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which th...

Banking Awareness Questions For NICL AO Mains Exam 2017

Q1. Loan and Advances of a bank come under which of the following category?
(a) Assets
(b) Liabilities
(c) Deposits
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q2. RBI sold its stake in NABARD to the Government of India, which now holds _____ stake.
(a) Approx 65%
(b) Approx 70%
(c) Approx 95%
(d) Approx 99%
(e) Approx 24%

Q3. Which of the following is not available to depositors of NBFCs?
(a) Deposit Insurance facility
(b) Acquisition of shares
(c) Loans and Advances
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q4. NBFCs include ______
(a) loan company
(b) investment company
(c) asset finance company
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q5. India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL) is a wholly-owned ____________ company set up in 2006.
(a) NABARD
(b) SEBI
(c) RBI
(d) Finance Ministry
(e) Government of India

Q6. Infrastructure Finance Company (IFC) is a non-banking finance company has a minimum Net Owned Funds of-
(a) Rs.100 Crore
(b) Rs.200 Crore
(c) Rs.500 Crore
(d) Rs.300 Crore
(e) Rs.800 Crore

Q7. Under which act NBFCs are incorporated?
(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(b) Companies Act, 1956
(c) RBI Act 1934
(d) SBI Act 1955
(e) None of the given options is true

Q8. An NBFC must be registered with the _____________ and have specific authorization to accept deposits from the public.
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SBI
(e) Government of India

Q9. RNBCs cannot accept deposits for a period less than _____ months and more than ______ months.
(a) 12, 84
(b) 14, 86
(c) 17, 92
(d) 24, 36
(e) 54, 95

Q10. RNBC stands for-
(a) Residuary Non-Banking Companies
(b) Reserve Non-Banking Companies
(c) Reserve New Banking Companies
(d) Re-curing New Banking Companies
(e) None of the given options is true

Q11. According to accepting public deposits, NBFCs can be classified into ____ broad categories.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
(e) Five

Q12. Which of the following are the country’s largest custodian and depository participant?
(a) CIBIL
(b) SEBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SHCIL
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. StockHolding was incorporated as a Public Limited Company in-
(a) 1995
(b) 1992
(c) 1986
(d) 1981
(e) 1979

Q14. StockHolding is a subsidiary of-
(a) IFCI Limited
(b) RBI
(c) Government of India
(d) SIDBI
(e) IDBI Limited

Q15. Which of the following is the parent organisation of UPI?
(a) RBI
(b) GOI
(c) NPCI
(d) PMMY
(e) SEBI











Solutions

1.A
2.D
3.A
4.D
5.E
6.D
7.B
8.A
9.A
10.A
11.A
12.D
13.C
14.A
15.C




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. Loan and Advances of a bank come under which of the following category? (a) Assets (b) Liabilities (c) Deposits (d) All of the Abov...

General Awareness Questions for NICL AO Mains 2017

Q1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has emerged as the most followed world leader on photo-sharing app Instagram with a whopping 6.9 million followers. Who was on second position in the list?
(a) Vladimir Putin
(b) Donald Trump
(c) Xi Jinping
(d) Kim Jong-un
(e) David Camero

Q2. United Nation (UN) chief Antonio Guterres has named ___________ as the new administrator of the United Nations Development Programme, recently.
(a) Achim Steiner
(b) Suchetha Desai
(c) Frank Mushyo
(d) Jeremiah Mamabolo
(e) David Beasley

Q3. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has recently given its approval for the listing of how many Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) on stock exchanges?
(a) 9
(b) 14
(c) 11
(d) 17
(e) 15

Q4. Name the author of blockbuster novel 'The Underground Railroad' who has recently won the Pulitzer Prize for fiction.
(a) Jane Austen
(b) Colson Whitehead
(c) Shankha Ghosh
(d) Svetlana Alexievich
(e) Marlon James

Q5. Which is an interest-free period that is to be given by a creditor to debtor?
(a) Fixed Period
(b) Preset Period
(c) Grace Period
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. ________ is a cheque rather an amount of cheque, which is above the balance available in the account of the payer.
(a) Travellers cheque
(b) Multicity Cheque
(c) Mutilated Cheque
(d) Over Draft
(e) Bad Debts

Q7. A cheque for a fixed amount that may be cashed or used in payment abroad after endorsement by the holder’s signature is known as ___________
(a) Travellers cheque
(b) Multicity Cheque
(c) Mutilated Cheque
(d) Crossed Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true

Q8. India and Prime Minister of which country have started a partnership aimed at increasing cooperation in sports, in the presence of batting legend Sachin Tendulkar?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Germany
(d) Australia
(e) Malaysia

Q9. What was the name of India's first ever micro-drama festival that was held recently in New Delhi.
(a) Thespis
(b) Taapsi
(c) Ankulrama
(d) Thanes Hare
(e) Mospesis

Q10. Name the person who has been recently appointed as the new MD and CEO of Karnataka Bank Ltd.
(a) Kailash Krishnamurthy
(b) M Venkataraman
(c) R Vimal Shankar
(d) B P Malhotra
(e) M M Subrahmanya

Q11. Haldia Port has topped the List in the First-Ever Ranking of Ports on Sanitation Parameters in the exercise that was undertaken during the ‘Swachhta Pakhwada’ (in March 2017). Haldia Port is situated in _____________.
(a) Chennai
(b) West Bengal
(c) Odisha
(d) Goa
(e) Maharashtra

Q12. Who is the present governor of West Bengal?
(a) Keshari Nath Tripathi
(b) Shriniwas Dadasaheb Patil
(c) Chennamaneni Vidyasagar Rao
(d) Padmanabha Balakrishna Acharya
(e) Tathagata Roy

Q13. Who is current Union Tribal Affairs Minister in Narendra Modi government?
(a) Narendra Singh Tomar
(b) Kalraj Mishra
(c) Jual Oram
(d) Prakash Javadekar
(e) Harsimrat Kaur Badal

Q14. Silent Valley National Park is situated in which of the following Indian state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) West Bengal
(d) Assam
(e) Meghalaya

Q15. Which of the following is not a measure of the Risk Management in Banks?
(a) CRR
(b) RTGS
(c) SLR
(d) Deposit Insurance
(e) None of the given options is true












Solutions

1.B
2.A
3.C
4.B
5.C
6.D
7.A
8.D
9.A
10.E
11.B
12.A
13.C
14.B
15.B



5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has emerged as the most followed world leader on photo-sharing app Instagram with a whopping 6.9 million f...

Twisted Ones: New Pattern English Questions For IBPS PO 2017 Exam

Directions (1-15): In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then choose the best option.

Q1. (i) The speed limit here is 80 kmph, but I may [A] can [B] drive at 100 kmph.
(ii) Fewer [A]/Less [B] students are opting for MBA these days.
(iii) Joyce Kilmer is considered one of the lesser [A]/fewer [B] poets of his time.
(iv) The fewest [A]/least [B] number of students signed up for Latin class this year.
(a) AAAA
(b) BAAA
(c) BABA
(d) BBAA
(e) None of these

Q2. (i) This is the same song that my friend had sang [A]/sung [B] during the picnic.
(ii) The prefect [A]/perfect [B] of the diplomatic corps was responsible for the faulty communication.
(iii) The committee did not find the plans for the renovation of the museum practical [A]/pragmatic [B].
(iv) The quarterback feinted [A]/fainted [B] to the left before passing the ball to the halfback.
(a) ABBB
(b) BAAA
(c) BABA
(d) BAAB
(e) None of these

Q3. (i) The warp [A]/woof [B] of India’s economic structure is still agriculture.
(ii) My friend always does the opposite of [A]/to [B] what I advise him.
(iii) Compact disks with prurient [A]/prudish [B] content are secretly in circulation on the campus.
(iv) He believed that the existence of god cannot be proved; he was not an atheist [A]/agnostic. [B]
(a) AAAA
(b) ABAA
(c) ABBB
(d) BAAB
(e) None of these

Q4. (i) The teacher asked the young boy to name the hews [A]/hues [B] of the rainbow.
(ii) I haven’t spoken with my mentor for [A]/since [B] several months.
(iii) Besides [A]/beside [B] the fact that we were unprepared, the exam turned out to be difficult.
(iv) I was expecting a big rise [A]/raise [A] in my salary the appraisal.
(a) BAAB
(b) BBBA
(c) ABAB
(d) BBAB
(e) None of these

Q5. (i) We were asked to read the article with the title [A]/headline [B] “Verbal Ability in Bank Exams”.
(ii) After the long trek he lay [A]/lied [B] down to rest for a while.
(iii) His bike hit a stationary [A]/stationery [B] car and was damaged.
(iv) My mom took my shirt away to sew[A]/sow [B] the loose buttons.
(a) ABAB
(b) BBAA
(c) BAAA
(d) BAAB
(e) None of these

Q6. (i) I have kept the book besides [A]/beside [B] your bag on the table.
(ii) You can attempt 10 questions from among [A]/between [B] 30 questions.
(iii) It was so hot in the sun that they moved into the shadow [A]/shade [B].
(iv) Although [A]/Despite [B] his having known her for years, he behaved like a stranger.
(a) ABAB
(b) ABBA
(c) BAAA
(d) BABB
(e) None of these

Q7. (i) The announcement said that the chief quest would be arriving presently [A]/currently [B].
(ii) After the recession employment rates are on the rise [A]/raise [B] again.
(iii) The professor could not explain the topic fully because of the continuous [A]/continual [B] interruptions.
(iv) I was not able to wear the trousers because they were creased [A]/crinkled. [B]
(a) AABA
(b) BBBA
(c) AABB
(d) BBAB
(e) None of these

Q8. (i) I was not able to answer the interviewer’s question about who discovered [A]/invented [B] the computer.
(ii) He got his car’s breaks [A]/brakes [B] repaired before the long drive.
(iii) As long as [A]/As far as [B] she is concerned, she will not say anything against you.
(iv) Timely advice from his friend saved him as he was about to tangle [A]/dangle [B] himself up in legal problems.
(a) ABAB
(b) BBBA
(c) BABB
(d) BAAB
(e) None of these

Q9. (i) We gathered in front of the school to welcome the new principle [A]/principal [B]
(ii) New Delhi is the capitol [A]/capital [B] of India.
(iii) The situation is currently [A]/presently [B] under control.
(iv) On the way I have to stop for a while to telephone [A]/ for telephoning [B] my brother.
(a) BBAA
(b) BBBA
(c) ABAB
(d) BBAB
(e) None of these

Q10. (i) He did not say [A]/tell [B] us anything about his affair.
(ii) The project would not have been completed in time but for his timely and valueless [A]/invaluable [B] contribution.
(iii) My friend is very sensible [A]/sensitive [B]; he listens to all my problems and tried to comfort me.
(iv) My dad assured [A]/ensured [B] me that everything will turn out to be right in the end.
(a) BAAA
(b) BBBA
(c) ABAB
(d) AAAB
(e) None of these

Q11. (i) In little over a month the campaign has more than acceded [A]/exceeded [B] expectations with 5000 tickets already sold for the show.
(ii) The students have free excess [A]/access [B] to the entire material in the library.
(iii) The elusion [A]/allusion [B] to corruption in the ministry landed the journalist in trouble with the officials.
(iv) Are the children all ready [A]/already [B] to go to the park?
(a) AAAA
(b) ABAA
(c) BBBA
(d) BABA
(e) None of these

Q12. (i) I find that there is all together [A]/altogether [B] too much violence in these films.
(ii) Is there anyway [A]/any way [B] we can get a film star to preside over the function?
(iii) The success of the event was entirely causal [A]/casual [B] as we had planned every minute details of it.
(iv) The police have ceased [A]/seized [B] a large number of arms from the militants.
(a) ABBA
(b) BBBA
(c) ABAB
(d) ABBB
(e) None of these

Q13. (i) In a few years, she became his trusted confident [A]/confidant [B].
(ii) We were required to make a custom [A]/costume [B] design for the online shop.
(iii) He was declared illegible [A]/eligible [B] for the post in spite of not having enough work experience.
(iv) Several eminent [A]/imminent [B] scientists are expected to be present for the seminar.
(a) ABAB
(b) ABBA
(c) BABA
(d) BAAB
(e) None of these

Q14. (i) For long he has been talking about his plans to emigrate [A]/immigrate [B] to Canada.
(ii) The way he plays the guitar is an aural [A]/oral [B] treat.
(iii) The advertisement mentioned several vacancies in the personnel [A]/personal [B] department.
(iv) The police found it very difficult to control the restive [A]/restless [B] crowd.
(a) ABAB
(b) AAAA
(c) BABB
(d) BBBB
(e) None of these

Q15. (i) The student approached the teacher to seek council [A]/counsel [B] about her career plans.
(ii) I had to change a few principal [A]/principle [B] parts of the engine to make it work again.
(iii) She was jealous [A]/zealous [B] in her pursuit to get into one of the IIMs.
(iv) His judicious [A]/judicial [B] decisions about his investments have made him wealthy.
(a) AAAB
(b) ABAB
(c) BABA
(d) BBAB
(e) None of these











Solutions

1.B
2.B
3.A
4.A
5.C
6.D
7.C
8.B
9.A
10.B
11.C
12.D
13.C
14.B
15.C




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Directions (1-15): In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are highlighted. From the ital...

General Awareness Questions for NICL AO Mains 2017

Q1. Name the person who has recently become the youngest noble prize winner to address Canadian parliament.
(a) Kailash Satyarthi
(b) Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) Raoul Wallenberg
(d) Malala Yousafzai
(e) None of the given options is true

Q2. The first rail freight service ‘British goods’ has started recently from the UK to-
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) France
(d) Spain
(e) China

Q3. Mukta Dutta Tomar has been appointed as the next Ambassador of India to which country?
(a) Japan
(b) Germany
(c) Oman
(d) Georgia
(e) Nigeria

Q4. Which among the following cities, India's first ever micro-drama festival, named "Thespis" was concluded?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Chennai
(e) Bareilly

Q5. A signed undertaking from one party containing a promise to pay a stated sum to a specified person or a company is known as ________
(a) Power of Attorney
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Purchasing Power Parity
(d) Plastic Notes
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. Which of the following is defined as the difference between current assets and current liabilities?
(a) Venture Capital
(b) Working Capital
(c) Equitable Mortgage
(d) Loss Assets
(e) Profit and Loss Account

Q7. A debt which is irrecoverable and is therefore written off as loss in the accounts of an institution or bank is known as __________
(a) external debt
(b) good debt
(c) bad debt
(d) internal debt
(e) None of the given options is true

Q8. Nearly four crore members of which of the following organisations will soon be able to settle their claims through the mobile application UMANG?
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) IRDA
(d) EPFO
(e) SIDBI

Q9. India and which country has inked six pacts including one aimed at boosting counter-terrorism cooperation recently?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Australia
(d) Malaysia
(e) Bangladesh

Q10. Name the person who has inaugurated the first NIMCARE World Health Day Summit 2017 in New Delhi.
(a) Shri Narendra Modi
(b) Shri Rajyavardhan Sing Rathore
(c) Shri Narendra Pradhan
(d) Shri Raghubar Das
(e) Shri Pranab Mukherjee

Q11. Jnanpith Award is an Indian award presented annually for the outstanding contribution in the field of....
(a) Sports
(b) Medical
(c) Literature
(d) Health
(e) Entertainment

Q12.The Reserve Bank of India has announced the auction of Treasury Bills to meet short term borrowing needs by the Central Government. Treasury Bills are issued for-
(a) 92 days,182 days,364 days
(b) 91 days,182 days,364 days
(c) 91 days,184 days,364 days
(d) 92 days,184 days,364 days
(e) 95 days,182 days,365 days

Q13. Which of the following is the currency of Greenland?
(a) Danish Krone
(b) Pound
(c) Krona
(d) Lari
(e) Euro

Q14. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is the prestigious award accorded annually by India to individuals or organisations in recognition of creative efforts toward promoting-
(a) International Stability
(b) International Peace
(c) International relations
(d) United Nation Children's Education Fund
(e) Global Prevention of crimes

Q15. ______________ is basically charged when a person uses a credit card to obtain cash.
(a) Early Repayment Charge
(b) Redemption Fee
(c) Transaction Fee
(d) Cash Advance Fee
(e) None of the given options is true











Solutions

1.D
2.E
3.B
4.A
5.B
6.B
7.C
8.D
9.C
10.E
11.C
12.B
13.A
14.B
15.D




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. Name the person who has recently become the youngest noble prize winner to address Canadian parliament. (a) Kailash Satyarthi (b) Aun...

Computer Questions for NICL AO Mains 2017

Q1. What is the attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication?
(a) Phishing
(b) Spoofing
(c) Identity theft
(d) Authentication
(e) Spamming

Q2. OSI model has how many layers?
(a) Two layers
(b) Five Layers
(c) Seven Layers
(d) Six Layers
(e) Eight Layers

Q3. Network __________ is the arrangement of the various elements (links, nodes, etc.) of a computer network.
(a) memory
(b) topology
(c) mainframe
(d) protocol
(e) devices

Q4. Which of the following terms is associated with Internet?
(a) Plotter
(b) Slide presentation
(c) Bookmark
(d) Pie Chart
(e) Microsoft Excel

Q5. Which of the following is contained at the end of the file name and helps to determine the type of file?
(a) File property
(b) The nomenclature
(c) The name
(d) File subname
(e) File extension

Q6. How can you access the font size tool on font dialog box in MS Word?
(a) Ctrl + S  
(b) Ctrl + Shift + S
(c) Ctrl + P  
(d) Ctrl + Shift + P
(e) Alt + P

Q7. Which of the following is not a binary number?
(a) 1010101
(b) 0101010
(c) 2020202
(d) 1110011
(e) 1111111

Q8.IBM was provided software for PC DOS by which of the following company?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Sony
(c) Google
(d) Apple
(e) None of the above

Q9. Which of the following was used to program the first computer?
(a) Assembly language
(b) Machine language
(c) Source code
(d) Object code
(e) ASCII code

Q10.Charles Babbage is known to have conceived which of the following earliest Computing machine?
(a) Analytical engine
(b) ENIAC
(c) UNIVAC
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q11.In second generation, which type of memory was used to store data?
(a) Paper tapes
(b) Magnetic drum
(c) Magnetic core
(d) Magnetic tape
(e) Magnetic disk

Q12.The first electronic digital computer contained _________?
(a) Electronic valves
(b) Neural Networks
(c) Fuzzy Logic
(d) Semiconductor memory
(e) None of these

Q13. What is the blinking symbol on the screen that shows where the next character will appear?
(a) Cursor
(b) Delete key
(c) Arrow key
(d) Return key
(e) None of these

Q14.The dual-port version of DRAM formerly used in graphics adaptors is :
(a) FPM DRAM
(b) EDORAM
(c) VRAM
(d) DDRSDRAM
(e) None of these

Q15. Type _______to start a numbered list, and then press SPACEBAR or the TAB key.
(a) 1#
(b) 1$
(c) 1.
(d) 1*
(e) None of these











Solutions

1.A
2.C
3.B
4.C
5.E
6.D
7.C
8.A
9.B
10.A
11.C
12.A
13.A
14.C
15.C





5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. What is the attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, ...

New Pattern Reasoning Questions for NICL AO Mains Exam

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are eight family members, viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the center but not necessarily in the same order. The following information is known about them.
(a)F, the wife of D, is sitting third to the right of C.
(b)A is the son of H. A is sitting second to the left of D. D is an immediate neighbour of neither F nor C. No male is an immediate neighbour of D.
(c)G sits second to the left of D’s son. Only two persons sit between H and A’s brother. Neither C nor D is the brother of A.
(d)D’s son and the wife of D’s son are immediate neighbours of each other.
(e)F is the mother of H and is an immediate neighbour of neither B nor G.
(f)G is the sister of E.

Q1. Who is sister in law of H?
(a) C
(b) G
(c) F
(d) E
(e) Cannot be determined

Q2. Who among following sits third to left of C?
(a) D
(b) H
(c) A
(d) F
(e) None of these

Q3. Who among following sits exactly between F and B?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) G
(d) C
(e) None of these

Q4. Who among following is wife of B?
(a) C
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H
(e) None of these

Q5. Who among following sits third to right of daughter of F?
(a) E
(b) B
(c) H
(d) C
(e) D

Q6. Sneha starts at point T, walks 4km north to reach point U. She turns left at 90° and walks to W which is 4km away, turns 90° right and goes 3km to P, turns 90° right and walks 1km to Q, turns left at 90° and goes to V, which is 1km away and once again turns 90° right and goes to R, 3km away. What is the distance between T and R?
(a) 4km
(b) 5km
(c) 7km
(d) 8km
(e) None of these

Q7. Romil drove 15 km North by his car. He then turned towards West and drove for 10 km. He then drove towards South for 5 km and then turned towards East and drove for the next 8 km. Finally, he turned to the right and drove for the next 10 km. How far and in which direction is Romil from his starting point?
(a) Can’t determine
(b) 6 km South
(c) 5 km West
(d) None of these
(e) 2 km West

Directions (8-9): Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.

Q8. Which of the following means ‘A is maternal uncle of C’?
(a) A ÷ B + C
(b) A × B + C
(c) A × B – C
(d) A ÷ B – C
(e) None of these

Q9. Which of the following means ‘A is grand mother of B’?
(a) A + C + B
(b) B × C + A
(c) A + C × B
(d) A – C + B
(e) None of these

Q10. In a row of twenty students, R is fifth from the right end and T is fourth from the left end. How many students are there between R and T in the row?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of the above

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Trainee Officers in an organization.
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 percent marks.
(ii) have secured atleast 60% marks in the Intermediate examination.
(iii) be at least 22 yr and not more than 29 yr as on 1.1.2010.
(iv) have secured atleast 40% marks in the selection examination.
(v) have secured atleast 50% marks in the interview.
(vi) be ready to sign a bond for two years.
In the case of candidate who satisfies all the conditions except
1. at (i) above, but is a qualified Accountant/Chartered Accountant, the case is to be referred to the ED.
2. at (v) above, but has secured at least 60% marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to the Chairman.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of the course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.1.2010.
Given answer
(a) If the candidate is to be selected
(b) If the candidate is not to be selected
(c) If the case is to be referred to ED
(d) If the case is to be referred to Chairman
(e) If the data provided is not adequate to take a decision

Q11. Surekha has secured 62% marks in XII standard, and 59% marks in BA. She was born on 15th July 1984. She has secured 50% marks in both the selection examination and the personal interview. She is ready to sign the bond for two years.

Q12. Simiran Singh was born on 8th May, 1986. She has secured 60% marks in both XII standard and B.Sc. She is ready to sign bond for two years. She has secured 40% marks in the personal interview and 50% in the selection examination.

Q13. Tinku Sharma was born on 2nd December, 1980. He has secured 56% marks in B.Sc. and 63% marks in XII Std. He has also secured 55% marks in both the selection examination and personal interview. He is ready to sign the bond for two years.

Q14. Nanhi  was born on 14th March, 1985. She has secured 62% marks in XII standard and 65% marks in the selection examination. She has also secured 58% marks in graduation and 48% marks in personal interview. She is ready to sign the bond for two years.

Q15. Kajari was born on 4th November, 1982. He has secured 67% marks in XII standard and 50 percent marks in graduation. He has also successfully qualified as a Chartered Accountant. He has secured 50% marks, in both the selection examination and the personal interview. He is ready to sign the bond for two years.













Solutions

1.A
2.B
3.A
4.A
5.D
6.D
7.E
8.C
9.D
10.A
11.A
12.B
13.B
14.D
15.C


5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. There are eight family members, viz A, B, C, D...

General Awareness Questions for NICL AO 2017

Q1. State-run gas company Gas Authority of India Ltd. (GAIL) has signed a time-swap deal with a trader company Gunvor to sell some of its US Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) as the Indian firm tries to ease the burden of its costly foreign LNG supplies. Gunvor is ______________ based company.
(a) Austria
(b) Switzerland
(c) Japan
(d) Australia
(e) Denmark

Q2. The Indian navy has successfully test-fired an anti-ship missile for the first time from an indigenously built ______________.
(a) Charlie class submarine
(b) Arihant class submarine
(c) Sindhughosh class submarine
(d) Kalvari class submarine
(e) Chakra class submarine

Q3. Name the district of Himachal Pradesh that has recently got approval to be its second capital.
(a) Shimla
(b) Solan
(c) Dharamshala
(d) Bilaspur
(e) Kullu

Q4. United India Insurance Company Limited (UIIC) was incorporated as a Company on 18th February 1938. General Insurance Business in India was nationalized in 1972. Where is the headquarter of UIIC?
(a) Kolkata
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Pune
(e) Chennai

Q5. NABARD was set up with an initial capital of 100 crore and to Promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural prosperity through effective credit support, related services, institution development and other innovative initiatives. Who is the present chairman of NABARD?
(a) UK Sinha
(b) RS Sharma
(c) Raghuram Rajan
(d) H K Bhanwala
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. Rajnath Singh is an Indian politician belonging to the Bharatiya Janata Party who currently serves as the Home Minister of India. His present constituency is?
(a) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
(b) Darbhanga, Bihar
(c) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Ghajiabad, Uttar Pradesh
(e) Gurugram, Haryana

Q7. 'Anything But Khamosh'; The Shatrughan Sinha's Biography is authored by?
(a) Bharathi S Pradhan
(b) Pramod Kapoor
(c) Amar Chitra Katha
(d) Govind Pansare
(e) Shantanu Guha Ray

Q8. The United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) is the United Nations agency responsible for the promotion of responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism. The Headquaters of UNWTO is situated at?
(a) London, United Kingdom
(b) Vienna, Austria
(c) Rome, Italy
(d) Geneva, Switzerland
(e) Madrid, Spain

Q9. India's largest LNG importer Petronet has signed an agreement to set up a $950 million liquefied natural gas import project in which country?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Bhutan
(d) Sri Lanka
(e) Russia

Q10. Under a scheme for pregnant women, the would-be mothers will get how much amount for their delivery, vaccination, and nutritious meals directly in their accounts?
(a) Rs 2,000
(b) Rs 6,000
(c) Rs 12,000
(d) Rs 8,000
(e) Rs 4,000

Q11. Which of the following state has launched 24*7 helpline number 181 to assist women in distress on the occasion of International Women’s Day (8th March 2017)?
(a) Assam
(b) Odisha
(c) Manipur
(d) Uttarakhand
(e) Jharkhand

Q12. In 'BCCI Annual Awards for 2015-16', who won the Best Umpire in Domestic cricket award?
(a) Vipul Sharma
(b) Nadeem Ghauri
(c) Amiesh Saheba
(d) Sunil Banerjee
(e) Nitin Menon

Q13. Name the state that has recently launched a housing scheme estimated at Rs 1,580 crore.
(a) Kerala
(b) Assam
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Gujarat

Q14. Name the ballistic missile that was recently launched by Iran's Revolutionary Guard.
(a) Hormuz 2
(b) Nagah 3
(c) Bomani 3
(d) Narou 4
(e) Wahadu 1

Q15. Which among the following organisation has issued the policy guidelines for the BBPS system on November 28, 2014?
(a) SEBI
(b) NABARD
(c) RBI
(d) Finance Ministry
(e) NPCI











Solutions

1.B
2.D
3.C
4.E
5.D
6.A
7.A
8.E
9.A
10.B
11.B
12.E
13.C
14.A
15.C




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. State-run gas company Gas Authority of India Ltd. (GAIL) has signed a time-swap deal with a trader company Gunvor to sell some of its U...

Quantitative Aptitude Questions for NICL AO Exam 2017

Q1. David invested certain amount in there different schemes A, B and C with the rate of interest 10% p.a., 12% p.a. and 15% p.a. respectively. If the total interest accrued in one year was Rs. 3200 and the amount invested in Scheme C was 150% of the amount invested in Scheme A and 240% of the amount invested in Scheme B, What was the amount invested in Scheme B?
(a) Rs. 5000
(b) Rs. 6500
(c) Rs. 8000
(d)Cannot be determined
(e)None of these

Q2. A person lent out a certain sum on simple interest and the same sum on compound interest at a certain rate of interest per annum. He noticed that the ratio between the difference of compound interest and simple interest of 3 years and that of 2 years is 25 : 8. The rate of interest per annum is:
(a) 10%
(b) 11%
(c) 12%
(d)12.5%
(e) None of these

Q3. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a ratio of 3 : 2 : 4 respectively. If the number of employees in the three companies is increased by 20%, 30% and 15% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively?
(a) 18 : 13 : 24
(b) 13 : 18 : 23
(c) 17 : 13 : 23
(d) 18 : 11 : 23
(e) None of these

Q4. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘HAPPY’ be arranged?
(a) 120
(b) 140
(c) 60
(d) 70
(e) None of these

Q5. There is some profit when an article is sold for Rs. 720. However when the same article is sold for Rs. 420, there is some loss. If the quantum of loss is two times the quantum of profit, find the cost price of  the article.
(a) Rs. 620
(b) Rs. 700
(c) Rs. 520
(d) Rs. 840
(e) Cannot be determined

Q6. In a company, there are 75% skilled workers and remaining ones are unskilled. 80% of skilled workers and 20% of unskilled workers are permanent. If number of temporary workers is  126, then what is the number of total workers?
(a) 480
(b) 510
(c) 360
(d) 377
(e) None of these

Q7. Six pipes are fitted to a water tank. Some of these are inlet pipes and the others outlet pipes. Each inlet pipe can fill the tank in 9 hrs and each outlet pipe can empty the tank in 6 hrs. On opening all the pipes, an empty tank is filled in 9 hrs. How many inlet pipes are there?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these

Q8. The ratio of monthly salaries of two persons, A and B is 8 : 7. If the salary of A is increased by 20% and that of B by 11%, the new ratio becomes 96 : 77. What is A’s salary?
(a) Rs. 800
(b) Rs. 775
(c) Rs. 750
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

Q9. A slab of ice 8 inches in length, 11 inches in breadth, and 2 inches thick was melted and resolidified in the form of a rod of 8 inches diameter. The length of such a rod, in inches, is
(a) 3
(b) 3.5
(c) 4
(d) 4.5
(e) None of these

Q10. A Labour was hired by Amit for certain number of days on the daily wages to give a total of Rs. 2150. But he was paid only Rs. 1850. Find the number of days when he was absent.
(a) 4 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 6 days
(d) 10 days
(e) None of these

Directions (11- 15): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

Q11. 2,3,8,?,112,565
(a) 36
(b) 14
(c) 27
(d) 45
(e) None of these

Q12. 6,4,8,23,?,385.25
(a) 84.5
(b) 73
(c) 78.5
(d) 82
(e) None of these

Q13. 400, ?, 320, 192, 76.8, 15.36
(a) 360
(b) 380
(c) 375
(d) 390
(e) None of these

Q14. 85, 43, 15, 4.5, ?
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.6
(c) 1.7
(d) 1.8
(e) 1.9

Q15. 12, 30, 60, 108, 180, 282, ?
(a) 366
(b) 420
(c) 444
(d) 496
(e) 504












Solutions

1.A
2.D
3.E
4.C
5.A
6.C
7.B
8.D
9.B
10.C
11.C
12.A
13.E
14.C
15.B



5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. David invested certain amount in there different schemes A, B and C with the rate of interest 10% p.a., 12% p.a. and 15% p.a. respectiv...

Banking Awareness Questions For NICL AO Exam

Q1. Under OLTAS, only a Single Copy Challan is used with a tear off portion for the Tax Payer. What does OLTAS stand for-
(a) On-line Tax Accounting Service
(b) On-line Tax Amounting System
(c) On-line Timing Accounting System
(d) On-line Tax Association Service
(e) On-line Tax Accounting System

Q2. What is the minimum period of maturity prescribed for Commercial Paper (CP)?
(a) 17 Months
(b) 14 Days
(c) 01 Year
(d) 07 days
(e) 05 years

Q3. Which banks are insured by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)?
(a) Foreign Banks functioning in India
(b) Local Area Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q4. What is the maximum period of maturity prescribed for Commercial Paper (CP)?
(a) 10 years
(b) 06 years
(c) 01 Year
(d) 02 years
(e) 05 years

Q5. Each depositor in a bank is insured by DICGC upto a maximum of _____________________ for both principal and interest amount held by him in the same capacity and same right as on the date of liquidation/cancellation of bank's licence or the date on which the scheme of amalgamation/merger/reconstruction comes into force.
(a) Rs.1,00,000
(b) Rs.2,00,000
(c) Rs.3,00,000
(d) Rs.4,00,000
(e) Rs.5,00,000

Q6. PSLCs are tradable certificates issued against priority sector loans of banks. What does meaning of "Cs" in PSLCs?
(a) Cess
(b) Cities
(c) Census
(d) Certificates
(e) None of the given options is true

Q7. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from -
(a) 1995
(b) 1999
(c) 1990
(d) 1982
(e) 1988

Q8. MTSS is a way of transferring personal remittances from abroad to beneficiaries in India. What does MTSS stand for-
(a) Mobile Transfer Service Scheme
(b) Money Transfer System Scheme
(c) Money Timing Service Scheme
(d) Market Transfer Service Scheme
(e) Money Transfer Service Scheme

Q9. How much cash can payment be made to the beneficiary in India under MTSS?
(a) Rs 2,00,000
(b) Rs 50,000
(c) Rs 1,00,000
(d) Rs 10,000
(e) None of the given options is true

Q10. RDA is a channel to receive cross-border remittances from overseas jurisdictions. What does meaning of "A" in RDA?
(a) Account
(b) Assembly
(c) Arrangement
(d) Association
(e) Amount

Q11. NPCI is an umbrella organization for all retail payments system in India. It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). What does NPCI stands for-
(a) National Payments Corporation of Industry
(b) National Payments Council of India
(c) Nominal Payments Corporation of India
(d) National Payments Corporation of India
(e) National Product Corporation of India

Q12. In which among the following years NPCI was incorporated-
(a) December 2008
(b) January 2006
(c) April 2010
(d) July 2012
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is the world's oldest international financial organisation. BIS was established on-
(a) 26th May 1961
(b) 01st October 1949
(c) 14th February 1914
(d) 21st August 1945
(e) 17th May 1930

Q14. Where is the head office of Bank for International Settlements (BIS)?
(a) Zurich, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Basel, Switzerland
(d) Berlin, Germany
(e) Geneva, Switzerland

Q15. Under which act NPCI was incorporated as a Section 8?
(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(b) Companies Act 2013
(c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(d) Societies Registration Act, 1860
(e) None of the given options is true











Solutions

1.E
2.D
3.D
4.C
5.A
6.D
7.A
8.E
9.B
10.C
11.D
12.A
13.E
14.C
15.B




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. Under OLTAS, only a Single Copy Challan is used with a tear off portion for the Tax Payer. What does OLTAS stand for- (a) On-line Tax ...

English Questions For RBI Grade B 2017 Exam

Q1.
(a) Soft drink concentrates are always preferred by children.
(b) Apart from quenching thirst, coconut water is also good for health.
(c) Some people say that Limca is an ideal thirst quencher.
(d) Coke and Pepsi are carbonated drinks.
(e) Thums-up is banned in some parts of India.

Q2.
(a) Dushera is celebrated with a lot of fervor particularly in Bengal.
(b) People, irrespective of their age rejoice on Diwali.
(c) Valentine’s Day is celebrated by youth.
(d) Sankranthi is considered to be a harvest festival.
(e) Holi is a festival of colours.

Q3.
(a) Mars is a planet on which scientists say life is possible.
(b) Earth derives its natural light from the sun.
(c) Jupiter is the largest planet of the solar system.
(d) The planet nearest to earth is Venus.
(e) A rainbow is one of the beautiful sights.

Q4.
(a) Astronomy is one of the ancient sciences known to man.
(b) Paleontology is the study of life in the geological past.
(c) Archeology and History are allied subjects.
(d) Moon is a satellite of the earth.
(e) Psychology is the scientific study of human behaviour.

Q5.
(a) Shakespeare was a famous exponent of the sonnet.
(b) Paradise lost is one of the most famous epics in English literature.
(c) An ode is written in an elevated style.
(d) Practical criticism is sometimes distinguished into impressionistic criticism.
(e) William Wordsworth is a nature poet.

Q6.
(a) Goddess Saraswati loves playing on the Veena.
(b) Lord Krishna enchanted Gopikas with his Flute.
(c) Bill Gates loves to be with Computer.
(d) Sage Narada always carries Tanpura.
(e) Ravana is known to be an expert player of Rudhraveena.

Q7.
(a) Gandhiji’s autobiography is ‘My experiments with Truth’.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru’s patriotism is seen in ‘Discovery of India’.
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai’s unhappiness over conditions in pre-independent India is seen in his book ‘Unhappy India’.
(d) Hitler’s ‘Mein-Kamph’ was looked upon as a bible by the Nazis.
(e) Shakespeare is the most famous playwright of English literature.

Q8.
(a) Ujjain, a holy place has the Mahakaleshwar Temple.
(b) The Kanha National Park is the biggest one in the state.
(c) The Buddhist stupa of Sanchi reveals the spread of Buddhism.
(d) Cave temples and Kailashnath temple at Ellora are famous for their caves and paintings.
(e) To many, Tirupathi, is not only a holy place but also a tourist place of attraction.

Q9.
(a) I have nothing to offer but blood, sweat and tears, said Winston Churchill.
(b) I know nothing but the fact of my ignorance, said Socrates.
(c) A single step for man, a giant leap for mankind opined Neil Armstrong.
(d) Just as I would not like to be a slave, so I would not like to be a master said Abraham Lincoln.
(e) Martin Luther King Jr. said that Americans will overcome oppression and will establish the rule of justice.

Q10.
(a) Vande Mataram was the source of inspiration to the people in their struggle for freedom.
(b) The Sarnath Lion of Asoka is preserved in the Sarnath Museum.
(c) Rabindranath Tagore’s ‘Jana gana mana’ was adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India.
(d) The Indian calendar is based on Saka era with Chaitra as the first month and a normal year of 365 days.
(e) Like the tower of Pisa even Kutub-Minar is leaning say experts.

Q11.
(a) Paddy and coconut are the food and cash crops of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli has no major or medium irrigation power projects.
(c) In UP sugar cane is a major cash crop.
(d) Coconut is the only major crop of Lakshadweep.
(e) Hindi, Punjabi and Urdu are the principal languages of Delhi.

Q12.
(a) Washington D.C is the capital of United States of America.
(b) Zimbabwe’s main centre of business is in Harare.
(c) Lusaka is the capital of Zambia.
(d) Zaire has Kinshasa as its capital.
(e) Cairo is the capital of Egypt and is a main business centre.

Q13.
(a) My daughter wants to travel by flight.
(b) My son wants to drive a car.
(c) My niece enjoys riding her tricycle.
(d) I went to Vijayawada by train.
(e) I hate to travel by a bus.

Q14.
(a) My aunt prefers to have a plate of fried rice.
(b) My father brought a bag of Basmati rice.
(c) My cook prepared pepper rice for breakfast.
(d) Small children are generally given rice and curds.
(e) We ate sticky rice in the Thailand restaurant and relished it.

Q15.
(a) Some people enjoy watching cricket.
(b) Others take pride in playing chess.
(c) I love to play football.
(d) My friend struggled hard to get selected in the hockey team.
(e) Children love to play outdoor games.











Solutions

1.B
2.C
3.E
4.D
5.D
6.C
7.E
8.B
9.C
10.B
11.E
12.A
13.D
14.B
15.A




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. (a) Soft drink concentrates are always preferred by children. (b) Apart from quenching thirst, coconut water is also good for health....

General Awareness Questions for RBI Grade B 2017

Q1. Name the Indian-origin woman who was named 'Asian Businesswoman of the Year' at an event in Birmingham, England.
(a) Asha Khemka
(b) Kiran Khelkar
(c) Vibha Bedi
(d) Aruna Chanda
(e) Shikha Singh

Q2. The Reserve Bank of India has recently allowed banks to invest in REITs and InvITs, a move that will help revive the cash-starved infrastructure sector. RIET stands for _____________.
(a) Real Estate Interest Transportation
(b) Real Estate Income Trust
(c) Real Estate Infrastructure Trust
(d) Real Estate Investment Trust
(e) None of the given options is true

Q3. Which of the following State government kick-started its ambitious ‘Deendayal Rasoi Yojana’ under which subsidised meals that will be available at Rs 5 per plate to people, especially the economically disadvantaged sections of society?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
(e) Assam

Q4. India's largest e-commerce player Flipkart recently bought eBay's India business and closing a $1.4 billion fund-raising round from Tencent, eBay and Microsoft. Name the Chief Executive Officer of Flipkart.
(a) Samuel bazz
(b) Jeff Bejos
(c) Devin Wenig
(d) Satya Nadella
(e) Kalyan Krishnamurthy

Q5. Which of the following institutions do not hold a banking license?
(a) Small Banks
(b) Foreign Banks
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) NBFCs
(e) Private Banks

Q6. What is the full form of FATCA?
(a) Forex Account Tax Compliance Act
(b) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act
(c) Forex Account Total Compliance Act
(d) Foreign Account Total Compliance Act
(e) None of the given options is true

Q7. What is the minimum initial deposit required for opening a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)?
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 1000
(c) Rs 100
(d) No initial deposit
(e) Rs 200

Q8.  The 12th edition Indo-Mongolian Joint Military Exercise Nomadic Elephant 2017 has held in __________.
(a) Darkhan
(b) Mizoram
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Ulaanbaatar
(e) Jammu & Kashmir

Q9. The Agriculture Ministry joined hands with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) to geo-tag agricultural assets for their real-time monitoring and effective utilisation. NRSC is a wing of ____________.
(a) Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)
(b) Raman Research Centre
(c) Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education
(d) Central Scientific Instruments Organization
(e) Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)

Q10. Saraswat Bank is the largest lender in the co-operative space in India. What is the Motto of Saraswat Bank?
(a) Together we Serve
(b) Hum Apke Sath
(c) Service to the common man
(d) Bank to bank upon
(e) Aapka Apna Bank

Q11. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is regional inter-governmental organisation and geopolitical union in South Asia. The headquarter of SAARC is?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kabul
(c) Colombo
(d) Thimphu
(e) Kathmandu

Q12. Where is the headquarter of International Renewable Energy Agency (IREA)?
(a) New York, USA
(b) Paris, France
(c) Brussels, Belgium
(d) Abu Dhabi, UAE
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. What is the currency of Cuba?
(a) Dinar
(b) Peso
(c) Euro
(d) Dollar
(e) Taka

Q14. Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of..............?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Telangana
(e) Andhra Pradesh

Q15. Who among the following decides the volume and value of banknotes to be printed in India?
(a) RBI
(b) SBI
(c) Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true













Solutions

1.A
2.D
3.C
4.E
5.D
6.B
7.D
8.B
9.E
10.C
11.E
12.D
13.B
14.C
15.A


5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. Name the Indian-origin woman who was named 'Asian Businesswoman of the Year' at an event in Birmingham, England. (a) Asha Khem...

Current Affairs Questions for SBI PO Mains

Q1. India has signed a loan agreement of 36 million dollars with the World Bank for Public Financial Management Capacity Building Program of which of the following Indian states?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) New Delhi
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
(e) Haryana

Q2. The Prime Minister Narendra Modi has signed seven agreements with Spain to strengthen bilateral cooperation to fight against terrorism after the visit from Germany. Who is the current Prime Minister of Spain?
(a) Juan Alvarez
(b) Juan Carlos
(c) Francisco Franco
(d) Mariano Rajoy
(e) Diego Martinez Barrio

Q3. World Milk Day is observed around the globe on ___________.
(a) 31 May
(b) 30 May
(c) 1 June
(d) 2 June
(e) 4 June

Q4. India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grew at what percent during the January-March quarter of 2017, according to government data?
(a) 6.4%
(b) 6.3%
(c) 6.2%
(d) 6.1%
(e) 6.0%

Q5. To attract more passengers to buy online train tickets, Indian Railways has introduced a new service called ___________________.
(a) Buy Now, Pay Later
(b) Instant Payment
(c) Cash on Delivery
(d) Payment on Demand
(e) Buying at will

Q6. Name the Union Minister who has recently inaugurated a grid-connected solar power plant of 16 MW capacity at the Ordinance Factory in Telangana’s Medak district.
(a) Rajnath Singh
(b) Bandaru Dattatreya
(c) Arun Jaitley
(d) Dharmendra Pradhan
(e) Suresh Prabhu

Q7. Which of the following Police has recently launched patrolling on bicycle to improve policing in congested localities in the city?
(a) Delhi Police
(b) Mumbai Police
(c) UP Police
(d) Pune Police
(e) Chennai Police

Q8. Name the Economic Affairs Secretary who has recently announced his retirement as the Corporate Affairs Secretary.
(a) Sandeep Jijodia
(b) Avinash Chander
(c) Shaktikanta Das
(d) Ravindra Singh
(e) Vijayalakshmy K. Gupta

Q9. Economic Affairs Secretary has recently announced his retirement as the Corporate Affairs Secretary. He is replaced by ______________.
(a) Prabhu Dayal Meena
(b) R.K. Mathur
(c) Shailesh Nayak
(d) Tapan Ray
(e) Pankaj Jain

Q10. Who is the current President of Switzerland-headquartered World Health Organization?
(a) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
(b) Margaret Chan
(c) Takehiko Nakao
(d) Jim Yong Kim
(e) None of the given option is true

Q11. Name the public lender who has signed a $100 million loan with Asian Development Bank (ADB) that will finance large solar rooftop systems on industrial and commercial buildings throughout India.
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Allahabad Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) UCO Bank
(e) Union Bank

Q12. Name the country that will become first in the world to have all government-owned ports running on solar and wind energy.
(a) India
(b) Portugal
(c) USA
(d) China
(e) Singapore

Q13. Name the cricketer who has become the first Indian Women cricketer to play in Kia Super League, the England T20 League.
(a) Mithali Raj
(b) Harmanpreet Kaur
(c) Anjum Chopra
(d) Shikha Pandey
(e) Ekta Bisht

Q14. The RBI will soon put into circulation currency notes in one rupee denomination. The new notes printed by the Government of India will bear the signature of _______________.
(a) Tapan Ray
(b) Manohar Kant
(c) Shaktikanta Das
(d) Swapnil Singh
(e) Murari Jha

Q15. Who is the present MD and CEO of Punjab National Bank?
(a) Usha Ananthasubramanian
(b) Chanda Kocchar
(c) Melwyn Rego
(d) Sunil Mehta
(e) None of the given options is true











Solutions

1.B
2.D
3.C
4.D
5.A
6.C
7.A
8.C
9.D
10.B
11.C
12.A
13.B
14.C
15.D




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. India has signed a loan agreement of 36 million dollars with the World Bank for Public Financial Management Capacity Building Program o...

Banking Awareness Questions for SBI PO Mains Exam

Q1. When a Bank provides a loan for purchase of white goods, it is categorised as-?
(a) Consumption loan
(b) White Goods loan
(c) Consumer Durable Loan
(d) Working Capital
(e) None of the given options is true

Q2. Fixed Deposits and Recurring Deposits are-
(a) repayable after an agreed period
(b) repayable on demand
(c) not repayable
(d) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice
(e) None of the given options is true

Q3. What is the full form of ‘FSDC’ which is used in financial sectors?
(a) Financial Security and Development Council
(b) Financial Stability and Development Council
(c) Fiscal Security and Development Council
(d) Fiscal Stability and Development Council
(e) None of the given options is true

Q4. FSDC was set up by the Government as the apex level forum in-
(a) September 2002
(b) January 2016
(c) March 2012
(d) July 2005
(e) December 2010

Q5. CRAR stands for _________
(a) Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio
(b) Capital to Risk Assets Ratio
(c) Credit Rating-Weighted Assets Ratio
(d) Credit Rating Assets Ratio
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. Which among the following are long term corporate bonds that are unsecured in nature?
(a) DCF
(b) Debentures
(c) Covenant
(d) CRAs
(e) Cheque

Q7. An account for which a bank acts as an uninterested third party is termed as?
(a) Savings Account
(b) Current Account
(c) Reserve Account
(d) Escrow Account
(e) Fixed Account

Q8. A signed undertaking from one party containing a promise to pay a stated sum to a specified person or a company is known as ________
(a) Power of Attorney
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Purchasing Power Parity
(d) Plastic Notes
(e) None of the given options is true

Q9. Which of the following is defined as the difference between current assets and current liabilities?
(a) Venture Capital
(b) Working Capital
(c) Equitable Mortgage
(d) Loss Assets
(e) Profit and Loss Account

Q10. A debt which is irrecoverable and is therefore written off as loss in the accounts of an institution or bank is known as __________
(a) external debt
(b) good debt
(c) bad debt
(d) internal debt
(e) None of the given options is true

Q11. ______________ is basically charged when a person uses a credit card to obtain cash.
(a) Early Repayment Charge
(b) Redemption Fee
(c) Transaction Fee
(d) Cash Advance Fee
(e) None of the given options is true

Q12. Which is an interest-free period that is to be given by a creditor to the debtor?
(a) Fixed Period
(b) Present Period
(c) Grace Period
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. ________ is a cheque rather an amount of cheque, which is above the balance available in the account of the payer.
(a) Travellers cheque
(b) Multicity Cheque
(c) Mutilated Cheque
(d) Over Draft
(e) Bad Debts

Q14. A cheque for a fixed amount that may be cashed or used in payment abroad after endorsement by the holder’s signature is known as ___________
(a) Travellers cheque
(b) Multicity Cheque
(c) Mutilated Cheque
(d) Crossed Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true

Q15. Which of the following is not a measure of the Risk Management in Banks?
(a) CRR
(b) RTGS
(c) SLR
(d) Deposit Insurance
(e) None of the given options is true











Solutions

1.C
2.D
3.B
4.E
5.A
6.B
7.D
8.A
9.B
10.C
11.D
12.C
13.D
14.A
15.B





5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. When a Bank provides a loan for purchase of white goods, it is categorised as-? (a) Consumption loan (b) White Goods loan (c) Consum...

Banking Awareness Questions for SBI PO Mains Exam

Q1. __________ an asset, including a leased asset, becomes non­ performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank.
(a) NPA
(b) KCC
(c) NPV
(d) GDP
(e) GNP

Q2. NPA stands for-
(a) National ­performing Assets
(b) New ­performing Assets
(c) Non ­production Assets
(d) Non ­performing Assembly
(e) Non ­performing Assets

Q3. MUDRA is a financial institution has been set up by Government of India for development and refinancing micro-units’ enterprises. What is the meaning of "A" in MUDRA?
(a) Agency
(b) Association
(c) Assembly
(d) Agent
(e) Alert

Q4. MUDRA stands for-
(a) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agent
(b) Medium Units Development & Refinance Association
(c) Micro Units Department & Refinance Agency
(d) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency
(e) Micro Unique Development & Refinance Assembly

Q5. India was one of the first in Asia to recognise the effectiveness of the EPZ model in promoting exports. EPZ stands for-
(a) Export Point Zone
(b) External Processing Zone
(c) Export Production Zone
(d) Export Processing Zone
(e) Export Processing Zonal

Q6. Asia's first EPZ was set up in-
(a) Kandla, Gujarat
(b) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kolhapur, Maharashtra
(d) Kochin, Kerala
(e) Haridwar, Uttarakhand

Q7. NPA is a loan or an advance where interest and/or instalment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than ______ days in respect of a term loan.
(a) 100 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 120 days

Q8. NPA is a loan or an advance where?
(a) the instalment of principal or interest there on remains overdue for one crop season for long duration crops.
(b) the account remains ‘out of order’ in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit (OD/CC).
(c) the instalment of principal or interest there on remains overdue for two crop seasons for short duration crops.
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q9. The purpose of MUDRA is to provide funding to the non-corporate small business sector through various Last Mile Financial Institutions like-
(a) Banks
(b) NBFCs
(c) MFIs
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q10. MUDRA Bank, a Non-Banking Finance Company as MUDRA Ltd has been set up as a subsidiary of............?
(a) SIDBI
(b) IDBI
(c) RBI
(d) NABARD
(e) SBI

Q11. In which among the following year Asia's first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was set up?
(a) 1959
(b) 1971
(c) 1965
(d) 1956
(e) 1975

Q12. What is the meaning of "E" in SEZs?
(a) Essential
(b) Economic
(c) Electronic
(d) Effective
(e) None of the above

Q13. Banks are required to classify NPA further into the ___________ categories based on the period for which the asset has remained non­performing and the realisability of the dues.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Four
(e) Six

Q14. Which among the following are not the categories of NPA?
(a) Sub­standard Assets
(b) Profit Assets
(c) Doubtful Assets
(d) Loss Assets
(e) None of the above

Q15. PMMY were launched on 08 April 2015 by the Hon’ble Prime Minister Narendra Modi. What is the full form of PMMY?
(a) Pradhan Manager MUDRA Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yatra
(c) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana
(d) Pramukh Mantri MUDRA Yojana
(e) None of the above











Solutions

1.A
2.E
3.A
4.D
5.D
6.A
7.C
8.D
9.D
10.A
11.C
12.B
13.B
14.B
15.C





5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. __________ an asset, including a leased asset, becomes non­ performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank. (a) NPA (b) KC...

Computer Questions for NICL AO Mains 2017

Q1. Which of the following HTML elements is the starting element in all HTML document?
(a) Root
(b) Metadata
(c) Section
(d) Heading
(e) Phrasing

Q2. Who invented the QWERTY keyboard?
(a) Carl Sholes
(b) Karl Sholes
(c) Christopher Latham Sholes
(d) Khristopher Sholes
(e) None of these

Q3. What is Windows Vista?
(a) Processor
(b) Operating System
(c) Input device
(d) Memory
(e) None of these

Q4. Which of the following is not a DBMS software?
(a) dBASE
(b) FoxPro
(c) Oracle
(d) Sybase
(e) Database2000

Q5. DBMS helps to achieve:
(a) data independence
(b) more redundancy
(c) centralized manner to control of data
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) None of the above

Q6. Which physical layer devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment?
1. Switch
2. NIC
3. Hub
4. Repeater
5. RJ45 transceiver
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 5 only
(e) None of these

Q7. Which of the following describe router functions?
(a) Packet switching
(b) Packet filtering
(c) Internetwork communication
(d) Path selection
(e) All of the above

Q8. A __________ is a computer network that usually spans a city or a large campus.
(a) LAN
(b) DAN
(c) MAN
(d) WAN
(e) None of these

Q9. What does MAN stands for?
(a) Micro area network
(b) Metropolitan area network
(c) Macro area network
(d) Mix area network
(e) None of these

Q10. How long is an IPv6 address?
(a) 32 bits
(b) 128 bytes
(c) 64 bits
(d) 128 bits
(e) None of these

Q11. What does P2P stands for?
(a) Peer To Peer
(b) Peek to peek
(c) Past to past
(d) Pair to pair
(e) All of these

Q12. By an intranet we mean:
(a) a LAN of an organization
(b) a Wide Area Network connecting all branches of an organization
(c) a corporate computer network
(d) a network connecting all computers of an organization and using the internet protocol
(e) None of these

Q13. After a credit card transaction has been authorized by the issuing bank by sending an authorization code to the merchant, the settlement stage of the process begins. Which of the following is a system type used to process such statements?
(a) Multitasking
(b) Memory Processing
(c) Level Processing
(d) Batch Processing
(e) Online Processing

Q14. Assembly is a _______ based low-level language replacing binary machine-code instructions, which are very hard to remember, it is the classic and uncontroversial example of a low level language.
(a) Memory
(b) High Level
(c) Key
(d) Mnemonic
(e) FORTRAN

Q15. China now has more of the world's fastest supercomputers than other countries. Which among the following is a Chinese super computer?
(a) BlueGene/Q system
(b) Cray XC30
(c) Shaheen II
(d) Fujitsu’s K
(e) Tianhe-2












Solutions

1.A
2.C
3.B
4.E
5.D
6.C
7.E
8.C
9.B
10.D
11.A
12.D
13.D
14.D
15.E




5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. Which of the following HTML elements is the starting element in all HTML document? (a) Root (b) Metadata (c) Section (d) Heading (...

Twisted Ones Quantitative Aptitude Questions for NICL AO Mains 2017

Q1. The average weight of 5 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them weighing 150 kg is replaced by another person. The new person is again replaced by another person whose weight is 30 kg lower than the person he replaced. What is the overall change in the average due to this dual change?
(a) 6 kg
(b) 9 kg
(c) 12 kg
(d) 15 kg
(e) 20 kg

Q2. A man’s average expenditure for the first 4 months of the year was Rs. 251.25. For the next 5 months the average monthly expenditure was Rs. 26.27 more than what it was during the first 4 months. If the person spent Rs. 760 in all during the remaining 3 months of the year, find approximately what percentage of his annual income of Rs. 30000 he saved in the year.
(a) 84%
(b) 90%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
(e) 88%

Q3. Akhilesh took five papers in an examination, where each paper was of 200 marks. His marks in these’ papers were in the proportion of 7 : 8 : 9 : 10 : 11. In all papers together, the candidate obtained 60% of the total marks. Then, the number of papers in which he got more than 50% marks is :
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) None of these

Q4. 4/5th of the voters in Ballary promised to vote for Sonia and the rest promised to vote for Sushma. Of these voters, 10% of the voters who had promised to vote for Sonia, did not vote on the election day, while 20% of the voters who had promised to vote for Sushma did not vote on the election day. What is the total no. of votes polled if Sonia got 216 votes ?
(a) 200
(b) 300
(c) 264
(d) 100
(e) None of these

Q5. At IIM Bangalore, 60% of the students are boys and the rest are girls. Further 15% of the boys and 7.5% of the girls are getting a fee waiver. If the number of those getting a fee waiver is 900, find the total number of students getting 50% concession if it is given that 50% of those not getting a fee waiver are eligible to get half fee concession ?
(a) 3600
(b) 2800
(c) 3200
(d) 3300
(e) None of these

Q6. A manufacturer estimates that on inspection 12% of the articles he produces will be rejected. He accepts an order to supply 22,000 articles at Rs. 7.50 each. He estimates the profit on his outlay including the manufacturing of rejected articles, to be 20%. Find the cost of manufacturing each article.
(a) Rs. 6
(b) Rs. 5.50
(c) Rs. 5
(d) Rs. 4.50
(e) None of these

Q7. A dealer marks articles at a price that gives him a profit of 30%. 6% of the consignment of goods was lost in a fire in his premises, 24% was soiled and had to be sold at half the cost price. If the remainder was sold at the marked price, what percentage profit or loss did the dealer make on that consignment ?
(a) 2%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 3%
(d) 6.2%
(e) None of these

Q8. The ratio of last year income of X, Y and Z is 3 : 4 : 5, while the ratio of their last year income to current year income is 4 : 5, 2 : 3 and 3 : 4 respectively. If their total current year income is Rs. 98,500, then find the present income of Y and Z together.
(a) Rs. 67,000
(b) Rs. 76,500
(c) Rs. 70,000
(d) Rs. 76,000
(e) None of these

Q9. A contractor employs 200 men to build a dam. They finish 5/6 of the work in 10 weeks. Then rain sets in and not only does the work remain suspended for 4 weeks but also half of the work already done is washed away. After the rain, when the work is resumed, only 140 men turn up. The total time in which the contractor is able to complete the work assuming that there are no further disruptions in the schedule is
(a) 25 weeks
(b) 26 weeks
(c) 24 weeks
(d) 20 weeks
(e) None of these

Q10. Ajay, Vijay and Sanjay are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. Ajay and Vijay together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and Vijay and Sanjay together 8/23 of the work. How much should Ajay be paid ?
(a) Rs. 245
(b) Rs. 295
(c) Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 345
(e) None of these

Q11. X takes 4 days to complete one-third of a job, Y takes 3 days to complete one-sixth of the same work and Z takes 5 days to complete half the job. If all of them work together for 3 days and X and Z quit, how long will it take for Y to complete the remaining work done.
(a) 6 days
(b) 8.1 days
(c) 5.1 days
(d) 7 days
(e) None of these

Q12. A, B and C working together completed a job in 10 days. However, C only worked for the first three days when 37/100 of the job was done. Also, the work done by A in 5 days is equal to the work done by B in 4 days. How many days would be required by the fastest worker to complete the entire work ?
(a) 20 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 40 days











Solutions

1.B
2.B
3.C
4.C
5.D
6.B
7.C
8.D
9.C
10.D
11.C
12.A





5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. The average weight of 5 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them weighing 150 kg is replaced by another person. The new person is agai...

Banking Awareness Questions for SBI PO Mains Exam

Q1. Cash kept in the currency chest is owned by-
(a) Currency Chest branch bank
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Central Government
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) Finance Ministry

Q2. When more than one bank is allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as ___________
(a) Consortium
(b) Syndication
(c) Multiple Banking
(d) Participation
(e) None of the given options is true

Q3. What is the minimum amount of deposit into/withdrawal from currency chest?
(a) Rs.5, 00,000
(b) Rs.1, 50,000
(c) Rs.2, 00,000
(d) Rs.3, 00,000
(e) Rs.1, 00,000

Q4. What is the maximum period for which a term deposit can be normally opened?
(a) 8 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 9 years
(d) 10 years
(e) 12 years

Q5. DICGC guarantees amount up to _____________ per depositor per bank.
(a) Rs.1, 00,000
(b) Rs.1, 50,000
(c) Rs.2, 00,000
(d) Rs.3, 00,000
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. Which of the following institutions do not hold a banking license?
(a) Small Banks
(b) Foreign Banks
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) NBFCs
(e) Private Banks

Q7. What is the full form of FATCA?
(a) Forex Account Tax Compliance Act
(b) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act
(c) Forex Account Total Compliance Act
(d) Foreign Account Total Compliance Act
(e) None of the given options is true

Q8. What is the minimum initial deposit required for opening a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)?
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 1000
(c) Rs 100
(d) No initial deposit
(e) Rs 200

Q9. Who among the following decides the volume and value of bank notes to be printed in India?
(a) RBI
(b) SBI
(c) Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q10. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction?
(a) RTGS
(b) NEFT
(c) TT
(d) EFT
(e) None of the given options is true

Q11. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as _________
(a) SWIFT
(b) Basel
(c) RTGS
(d) NEFT
(e) AIIB

Q12. Which of the following is not a ‘Money Market Instrument’?
(a) Treasury Bills
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Equity Shares
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt. of India, both capital and revenue it is called _______
(a) Income Deficit
(b) Fiscal Deficit
(c) Budgetary Deficit
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q14. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the ‘drawee bank’?
(a) The bank that collects the cheque
(b) The payee’s bank
(c) The endorser’s bank
(d) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn
(e) None of the given options is true

Q15. Banks issue a letter to beneficiary on behalf of its constituents like guarantee for making payment on their behalf on fulfillment of its terms and conditions. What is this arrangement known in banking context?
(a) Line of Credit
(b) Loan to Client
(c) Loan on Credit
(d) Letter of Credit
(e) None of the given options is true










Solutions

1.D
2.A
3.E
4.D
5.A
6.D
7.B
8.D
9.A
10.A
11.A
12.D
13.C
14.D
15.D






5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Q1. Cash kept in the currency chest is owned by- (a) Currency Chest branch bank (b) State Bank of India (c) Central Government (d) Rese...

English Questions for Dena Bank PO Exam 2017

Directions (1-5): In each of the following sentences, parts of the sentence are left blank. Beneath each sentence, five different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the five options.

Q1. Cars __________ to accommodate wheelchair users are vital to disabled people to get out and about and enjoy __________ lives.
(a) designed, their
(b) modified, healthy
(c) adapted, active
(d) modified, itinerant
(e) adopted, itinerant

Q2. Some __________ defending, especially in the second half of the game allowed the opposition to __________ and the defending champions lost the game.
(a) slack, score
(b) superb, lose
(c) robust, win
(d) superb, score
(e) slack, lose

Q3. Print, paper, and newspapers enabled the rise of new types of __________ based on expanded popular participation.
(a) class conflicts
(b) cultural forms
(c) social norms
(d) political systems
(e) ethical dilemmas

Q4. Businesses attempt to __________ the conflicts of interest between groups to ensure __________ operation of the organization.
(a) compromise, profitable
(b) reconcile, efficient
(c) reconcile, commercial
(d) stimulate, efficient
(e) encourage, professional

Q5. One in three people on our planet have no __________ to modern energy to light and heat the __________ in which they live.
(a) resource, homes
(b) right, houses
(c) contact, nations
(d) access, dwellings
(e) source, countries

Directions (6-15): The following questions are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answer the question. You should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage.

Q6. People with plenty of a B-vitamin in their blood appear to be at a reduced risk of lung cancer, even if they smoke, a European study suggests. High levels of Vitamin B6 and the amino acid methionine cut the risk by half, a study of 400,000 people suggested. These occur naturally in nuts, fish and meat or can be taken as supplements.

Findings of the above study may still be premature if which of the following possibilities true?
(a) Many of the 400,000 people studied might have quit smoking and used vitamin supplements in order to avoid cancer.
(b) A healthy diet in itself might reduce the risk of cancer, and lead to higher Vitamin B and methionine levels.
(c) The study might not have ascertained how many of the 4,00,000 people smoked, and how many did not.
(d) Higher vitamin levels could simply reflect healthier lifestyles.
(e) None of the above

Q7. The genetics underpinning a smoker’s risk of developing lung cancer have been further unpicked by UK scientists. In one area of DNA, on chromosome 15, they pinpointed two independent sites that have a role in whether or not a smoker develops lung cancer. Current or former smokers who carry one copy of each of these genetic variants increase their risk of lung cancer by 28%. That increases to 80% in smokers who carry two copies.

Which of the following has to be true if the risks cited above are to be true?
(a) Apart from chromosome 15, chromosomes 5 and 6 were also linked to lung cancer
(b) Those who had the genetic variants in chromosome 15, and were smokers developed different type of cancer.
(c) Those who had the genetic changes but did not smoke had no increased risk of cancer.
(d) Those who had quit smoking did not show an increased risk of lung cancer.
(e) Those who did not carry the genetic variants in chromosome 15 did not develop cancer.

Q8. Drinking several cups of tea or coffee a day appears to protect against heart disease, a 13-year-long study from the Netherlands has found. It adds to a growing body of evidence suggesting health benefits from the most popular hot drinks. Those who drank more than six cups of tea a day cut their risk of heart disease by a third, the study of 40,000 people found. Consuming between two to four coffees a day was also linked to a reduced risk.

Which of the following, if true, best strengthens the argument that tea and coffee protect against heart disease?
(a) Tea and coffee were found to decrease the risk of heart disease in smokers.
(b) Majority of the deaths attributed to heart disease were found to be of coffee and tea drinkers.
(c) Abstainers, who had a healthy life style, were found to have far lower risk of heart disease than tea and coffee drinkers.
(d) Abstainers were more likely to die of heart disease than those who drank more than six cups of tea and two to four coffees a day.
(e) Those who drank more than six cups of tea and two to four coffees a day ran the same risk of heart disease as were abstainers.

Q9. A green tea extract may help patients with a form of leukemia, a study says. The tea, discovered in China nearly 5,000 years ago, has long been thought to have health benefits. But the team from the Mayo Clinic in the United States found it appeared to improve the condition of four patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Experts said the Leukemia Research journal study was interesting but more research was needed. CLL is a blood and bone marrow cancer which affects white blood cells and is the commonest type of leukemia with over 3,000 new cases—mainly in the over 60s—diagnosed each year in the UK. There is no known cure for CLL.

The experts’ further research should be in the direction of ……
(a) Whether chemotherapy that is the only treatment administered for CLL can be replaced with green tea extract.
(b) To prove the findings on a larger scale and whether there were any side effects.
(c) Carrying out a large scale, controlled trial to see if the findings hold true.
(d) Whether green tea extract can be beneficial in treating other diseases like heart disease, HIV, cancer, and arthritis.
(e) To ascertain why Chinese had used green tea for 5,000 years.

Q10. British Petroleum is going to great lengths to salvage its image—buying every possible term in the vicinity of “oil spill” from search engine providers and spending millions on advertising to bolster its image after the crisis of the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico. But the green consumer is not buying. As environmental concerns mount, the green consumer wants companies to be more responsible. According to The Green Brands study, conducted by WPP companies, Cohn & Wolfe, Landor Associates and Penn, Schoen & Berland, although economic concerns strongly prevail in most countries, consumer worry for the environment is intensifying.

Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
(a) There is a fundamental shift in consumer behaviour towards green products.
(b) A company that associates with an environment protection organization is likely to succeed.
(c) A company that introduces a green product in the market place is likely to succeed.
(d) Consumers are becoming more concerned about the environment than the economy.
(e) Not only must companies have their green credentials straight but the way ahead is through innovation.

Q11. President Barack Obama remains popular in most parts of the world, although his job approval rating in the United States has declined sharply since he first took office.

Which of the following helps explain the above seeming paradox?
(a) Barack Obama’s performance as a president has made him unpopular in the United States.
(b) Barack Obama’s foreign policy has been widely criticized in the United States.
(c) Barack Obama’s domestic policies in dealing with the internal recession have been widely acclaimed by people in most parts of the world.
(d) Barack Obama’s popularity outside the United States is largely affected by his negative image in the Muslim countries.
(e) Barack Obama’s foreign policy is perceived to be far better than his domestic policy.

Q12. The year 2010 is turning out to be the warmest ever in recorded history, with the first four months reporting an average temperature of 13.3 degrees Celsius which is 0.69 degrees above the 20th century average. The combined global land and ocean surface temperatures for the period between January and April were the warmest on record, and April was the warmest individual month ever with 14.5 degrees Celsius, America’s climate agency has said in its latest report.

Which of the following must be true if the above has to be true?
(a) The 20th century average for ocean surface temperature is 16.4 and the average for global land temperature is 8.82 degrees Celsius.
(b) The combined April global land and ocean average surface temperature was 13.5 degrees Celsius.
(c) The 20th century average for ocean surface temperature is 16 and the average for global land temperature is 8 degrees Celsius.
(d) The combined April global land and ocean average surface temperature was 1.2 degrees above the 20th century average for April.
(e) The global land temperature for January-April at 13.3°C is 1.80 degrees Fahrenheit above the 20th century average.

Q13. Fertility clinics in India are booming. The services on offer have been referred to as the country’s “rent-a-womb” industry. The number of foreigners going to India for fertility treatments, especially surrogacy, has dramatically increased in recent years. At present there are no laws governing industry practices and while a new bill has been presented to the government, there are growing fears about the commercialization of surrogacy in India.

Which of the following is the most likely fallout of the above?
(a) Laws governing the “surrogacy industry” in India will be made stricter.
(b) “Surrogacy industry” in India is likely to be greatly commercialized.
(c) India’s “surrogacy industry” faces regulation.
(d) The India government is likely to close down the “rent-a-womb” industry.
(e) Foreigners are likely to visit other developing nations for fertility treatments and surrogacy.

Q14. With more than a billion mouths to feed, there is a fierce debate in India about whether to introduce genetically modified food crops. Scientists say they are crucial to tackling food shortages, but farmers and others are divided over the benefits. Doubts have been raised by the experience of growing genetically modified cotton in India, which has been blamed by activists for the suicides of thousands of farmers in the poorest parts of the country.

The details above raise to which of the following questions?
(a) Will the India government be able to feed the more than one billion mouths?
(b) Can the uneducated Indian farmer understand the genetically modified food crops?
(c) Will genetically modified food crops go follow the fate of genetically modified cotton?
(d) Can genetically modified food crops be the answer to farmer suicides n India?
(e) Are genetically modified food crops the answer to India’s food shortages?

Q15. A new research looking back to the Miocene period, which began a little over 20 million years ago found that at the start of the period, carbon dioxide concentrations in the atmosphere stood at about 400 parts per million (ppm) with sea levels 25-40 m (80-130 ft) higher than today, before beginning to decline about 14 million years ago—a trend that eventually led to formation of the Antarctic icecap and perennial sea ice cover in the Arctic. In the intervening millennia, CO_2 concentrations have been much lower; in the last few million years they cycled between 180 ppm and 280 ppm in rhythm with the sequence of ice ages and warmer interglacial periods. Therefore, the current political targets on climate may be “playing with fire.”

Which of the following makes the current political targets on climate “playing with fire”?
(a) Humanity’s emissions of greenhouse gases are pushing towards the 400 ppm, which will likely be reached within a decade.
(b) The CO^2 level that would prevent dangerous human interference with the climate system currently receiving a lot of political support is 450 ppm.
(c) Humanity does not know where the critical CO_2 or temperature threshold is beyond which ice sheet of the poles collapse becomes inevitable.
(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) work on ancient climates for the organization’s report in 2007, provides an accurate look at how past CO_2 values relate to climate.
(e) Efforts to stabilize at 450 ppm should avoid going up above that level. Any “overshoot” above 450 ppm could be playing with fire.













Solutions

1.C
2.A
3.D
4.B
5.D
6.B
7.C
8.D
9.B
10.D
11.E
12.A
13.C
14.E
15.B





5 Banking and SSC : June 2017 Directions (1-5): In each of the following sentences, parts of the sentence are left blank. Beneath each sentence, five different ways of c...
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Concept Of Science