Computer Questions for IBPS RRB Mains 2017

Q1. What does the SMTP in an SMTP server stand for?
(a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(b) Serve Message Text Process
(c) Short Messaging Text Process
(d) Short Messaging Transfer Protocol
(e) Simple Messaging Text Process

Q2. Which among the following was the first graphical web browser?
(a) Mosaic
(b) WAIS
(c) CERN
(d) Gopher
(e) None of the above

Q3. Inheritance is the ability of an object to pass on its characteristics to its :
(a) subclasses
(b) off-spring
(c) super classes
(d) parents
(e) none of the above

Q4. What does the computer Motherboard contains that houses setting configurations and is powered by the onboard battery?
(a) DRAM
(b) RAM
(c) CMOS
(d) CPU
(e) None of these

Q5. Which type of system can learn and adjust to new circumstances by themselves?
(a) Database management system
(b) Expert systems
(c) Geographical systems
(d) Neural networks
(e) File based systems

Q6. What is the maximum size of text field in Access?
(a) 6400 characters
(b) 6880 characters
(c) 6499 characters
(d) 255 characters
(e) None of these

Q7. Which among the following term is used for: Unauthorized copying of software to be used for personal gain instead of personal backups?
(a) program thievery
(b) data snatching
(c) software piracy
(d) program looting
(e) data looting

Q8. Type _______to start a numbered list, and then press SPACEBAR or the TAB key.
(a) 1#
(b) 1$
(c) 1.
(d) 1*
(e) None of these

Q9. A/(n) ___________ is an object embedded in a web page or email, which unobtrusively (usually invisibly) allows checking that a user has accessed the content.
(a) email
(b) virus
(c) web beacon
(d) spam
(e) firewall

Q10. What type of technology allows you to use your finger, eye, or voice print to secure your information resources?
(a) Haptics                                      
(b) Caves
(c) Biometrics                  
(d) RFID
(e) All of above

Q11. What is Disk operating system referred for?
(a) Memory management system
(b) Operating system which contains the disk-oriented commands and uses disk devices for permanent storage
(c) DOS
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) None of these

Q12. What is included in an e-mail address?
(a) Domain name followed by user’s name
(b) User’s name followed by domain name
(c) User’s name followed by postal address
(d) User’s name followed by street address
(e) None of these

Q13. Which of the following communications modes support two-way traffic but in only one direction of a time?
(a) simplex
(b) half-duplex
(c) three-quarters duplex
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these

Q14. Where are the files deleted from the hard disk sent to?
(a) recycle bin
(b) floppy disk
(c) clipboard
(d) clipart
(e) dekstop

Q15. Which number system is used by computers to store data and perform calculations?
(a) binary
(b) octal
(c) decimal
(d) hexadecimal
(e) None of these













Solutions

1.A
2.A
3.A
4.C
5.D
6.D
7.C
8.C
9.C
10.C
11.D
12.B
13.B
14.A
15.A

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Quantitative Aptitude Questions for IBPS RRBs PO Exam 2017

Q1. One of the angles of a triangle is two-third of sum of adjacent angles ofa parallelogram. Remaining angles of the triangle are in ratio 5 : 7, respectively. What is the value of second largest angle of the triangle?

(a) 25°

(b) 40°

(c) 35°

(d) Can’t be determined 

(e) None of these 

Q2. Shankar started a business with an investment of Rs. 120000. After 3 month Awani joined him with Rs. 190000. At the end of the year they earned a profit of Rs. 175000000. What is the share of Awani in the profit?

(a) Rs. 80000000 

(b) Rs. 85000000

(c) Rs. 90000000

(d) Rs. 95000000

(e) None of these 

Q3. A sum of money is divided among W, X, Y and Z in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 9 : 13. If the share of W and Y together is Rs. 11172, then what is the difference between the amounts of X and Z?

(a) Rs. 7672 

(b) Rs. 6834 

(c) Rs. 5586 

(d) Can’t be determined 

(e) None of these

Q4. The speed of two trains are in the ratio 5 : 3. They are going in opposite directions along parallel tracks. If the first train crosses a pole in 4 s and the second in 8 s, how long will they take to cross each other?

(a) 5 s

(b) 5.5 s

(c) 6 s 

(d) 6.5 s 

(e) None of these 

Q5. A train travelling at the speed of 50 km/h leaves from a station. Another train travelling at speed of 60 km/h leaves the same station after 7 h in the same direction. They will meet after what distance? 

(a) 1800 km  

(b) 2100 km 

(c) 2400 km 

(d) 2700 km  

(e) None of these 

Q6. Manoj sold an article for Rs. 15000. Had he offered a discount of 10% on the selling price, he would have earned a profit of 8%. What is the cost price?

(a) Rs. 12500 

(b) Rs 13500

(c) Rs. 12250

(d) Rs. 13250

(e) None of these 

Q7. 50 cm wide path is to be made around a circular garden having diameter of 8 m. approximately, what is the area (in sq m) of the path?

(a) 13 

(b) 8

(c) 18

(d) 22

(e) 20

Q8. A alone can complete a piece of work in 8 days. Work done by B alone in one day is half of the work done by A alone in one day. In how many days can the work be completed, if A and B work together?

Q9. Mr. Shirke distributes the money he has among his 2 sons, 1 daughter and wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of the daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 8500, what was the total amount distributed?

(a) Rs. 38250

(b) Rs. 34250

(c) Rs. 38500

(d) Rs. 32500

(e) None of these 

Q10. Sarita started a business investing Rs. 50000. After six months Abhishek joined her with Rs. 75000. After another six months Nisha also joined them with Rs. 1.25 lakh. Profit earned at the end of 2 yr from when Sarita started the business should be distributed among Sarita, Abhishek and Nisha in what respective ratio?

(a) 4 : 5 : 6 

(b) 8 : 9 : 10 

(c) 8 : 9 : 12

(d) 4 : 5 : 8

(e) None of these 

Directions (Q11-15): Find out the missing no. in the given series.

Q11. 2, 7, 24, 61   ?    227

(a) 116

(b) 126

(c) 129

(d) 136

(e) 125

Q12. 76,  151,  454,  1815,  ?

(a) 9070

(b) 9072

(c) 9054

(d) 9074

(e) 9076

Q13. ?,   31  ,-7,  43,  -8,  57,  -9,  73

(a) -6

(b) -5

(c) 6

(d) 7

(e) None of these

Q14. 0, -4, 60, 24, ?, 436

(a) 546

(b) 516

(c) 526

(d) 536

(e) None of these

 Solutions

1.C
2.D
3.C
4.B
5.B
6.A
7.A
8.C
9.A
10.B
11.B
12.E
13.A
14.D
15.B

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English Questions For IBPS RRB PO Exam 2017

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following seven sentences A, B, C, D, E, F, and G in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

VI. A. To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about -NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
B. Contrastingly, the CRM, such as; a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only to the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material or conversely, all students may fail the test.
C. In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterion-referenced (CRM).
D. Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curves distribution.
E. Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
F. CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the taught or learned the material.
G. One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

Q1. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement?
(a) G
(b) C
(c) D
(d) D
(e) E

Q2. Which of the following should be the seventh (Last) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q3. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) E

Q4. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q5. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) G
(d) D
(e) E

Directions (6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions given below it.

Paragraph1: Organized retail has fuelled new growth categories-like liquid hand wash, breakfast cereals, and pet food in the consumer goods industry, accounting for almost 50% of their sales, said data from market search firm Nielsen. The figures showed some of these new categories got more than 40% of their business from modern retail outlets. The data also suggests how products in these categories reach the neighborhood Kirana stores after they have established themselves in modern trade.
Paragraph2: While grocers continue to be an important channel, for the new and evolving categories we saw an increased presence of high-end products in modern trade. e.g., premium products in laundry detergents, dishwashing, car air fresheners and surface care increased in availability through this format as these products are aimed at affluent consumers who are more likely to shop in supermarket/hyper market outlets and who are willing to pay more for specialized products.
Paragraph3: Some other categories that have grown exceptionally and now account for the bulk of the sales from modern retail are frozen and ready-to-eat foods, pet food, diapers, pre- and post-wash products, hair conditioners and high-end shaving products, besides others. “Win the evolution of modern trade, our growth in this channel has been healthy as it is for several other categories. Modern retail is an important part of our business” said managing director, Kellogg India.
Paragraph4: What modern retail offers to companies experimenting with new categories is the chance to educate customers which were not the case with a general trade store. “Category creation and market development start with the modern trade but as more consumers start consuming this category, they penetrate into other channels, said President, food & FMCG category, Future Group the country’s largest retailer which operates stores like Big Bazaar.
Paragraph5: But a point to note here is that modern retailers themselves push their own private brands in these very categories and can emerge as a big threat for the consumers' goods and foods companies. For instance, Big Bazaar’s private label Clean Mate is hugely popular and sells more than a brand like Harpic in its own stores. “So, there is a certain amount of conflict and competition that will play out over the next few years which the FMCG companies will have to watch out for”, said KPMG’s executive director (retail).
Paragraph6: In the past, there have instances of retailers boycotting products from big FMCG players on the issue of margins, but as modern retail becomes increasingly significant for pushing new categories, experts say we could see more partnerships being forged between retailers and FMCG companies. “Market development for new categories takes time so brand wars for leadership and consumer franchise will be fought on the modern retail platform. A new brand can overnight compete with established companies by typing up with few retailers in these categories”, President of Future Group added.

Q6. Which of the following is being referred to as new growth category?
(a) Soap cake
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Fresh vegetables
(d) Liquid Handwash
(e) Usual groceries

Q7. Which of the following is being referred to as modern retail outlet?
(a) Kirana Store
(b) Online Store
(c) Door-to-door Selling
(d) Road-side Hawkers
(e) Supermarket

Q8. Which of the following best conveys the meaning of the phrase, “watch out for” as used in Paragraph 6?
(a) Demand justice
(b) Avoid conflict
(c) Be on the alert
(d) Passively accept
(e) Open for competition

Q9. Which of the following is being referred to as ‘certain amount of conflict’?
(a) Retailers selling their own products with products of companies
(b) Retailers selling similar products of different consumer companies
(c) Offering differential rate of margin for different products
(d) New products killing the old products
(e) Different retailers selling the same category of products

Q10. The new growth category products
(a) reach first the neighborhood Kirana shop and then the modern retail outlets
(b) account for less than 20% of sales in organized retail
(c) reach all the outlets almost at the same time
(d) first become popular in modern trade outlets before reaching Kirana shops
(e) are aimed at the poor section of the society

Q11. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Clean Mate is a product of an organized retailer
(b) Some retailers don’t keep some products if the profit margin is not good
(c) A new brand can never quickly displace an established brand
(d) Kirana store still remains an important channel
(e) In future, there will be more partnerships between retailers and FMCG Companies

Q12. Which of the following categories has become very popular through sales from modern retail outlets?
(a) Frozen foods
(b) Computers
(c) Cell phones
(d) Fresh fruits
(e) Soft-drinks

Q13. Which class/section of people are more likely to shop in Hypermarket outlets?
(a) Senior citizens
(b) Younger generation
(c) Rich consumers
(d) Poor section
(e) Women

Q14. Which of the following advantages do modern retail outlets provide for new categories of products as compared to general trade stores?
(a) Higher profit margins
(b) Experimenting with new products
(c) Competition with similar products
(d) Better packing of the product
(e) Products at much lower price

Q15. “…………… penetrate into other Channels.” Which of the following is being referred to as Channels?
(a) Products
(b) Companies
(c) New products
(d) Existing products
(e) None of these












Solutions

1.E
2.B
3.D
4.C
5.C
6.D
7.E
8.C
9.A
10.D
11.C
12.A
13.C
14.B
15.E

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Banking Awareness Questions for IBPS RRBs Exam 2017

Q1. A centralised database with online connectivity to branches and the Internet as well as ATM Network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as_________
(a) Investment Banking
(b) Mobile Banking
(c) Specialised Banking
(d) Core Banking Solution
(e) None of the given options is true

Q2. Which of the following is the purpose of introducing “Know Your Customer” norms by the banks?
(a) Identifying people who do not pay Income Tax
(b) To bring more and more people under the banking net
(c) To ensure that the money deposited in banks has come from genuine sources
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q3. Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India (SPMCIL) Limited was incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 with its corporate office at-
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Bangalore
(d) New Delhi
(e) Nasik

Q4. Security Paper Mill (SPM) was formally inaugurated and dedicated to the nation on the 9th March, __________ by the then Deputy Prime Minister, Shri Morarji Desai.
(a) 1956
(b) 1968
(c) 1949
(d) 1962
(e) 1971

Q5. What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
(a) It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country.
(b) It is the Cost production of all final goods and services made in the country.
(c) It is the Cost services of all final goods and services made in the country.
(d) It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year.
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. _________ account is opened by the investor while registering with an investment broker.
(a) Fixed Deposit Account
(b) Savings Bank Account
(c) Recurring Account
(d) Demat Account
(e) None of the given options is true

Q7. Which of the following bank launches India’s first Mobile ATM?
(a) HDFC Bank
(b) Axis Bank
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) SBI
(e) Bank of Baroda

Q8. World’s first Bitcoin ATM located in-
(a) US
(b) Brazil
(c) Canada
(d) UK
(e) Japan

Q9. _______ is a financial market in which share prices are rising or expected to rise.
(a) Bear Market
(b) Bull Market
(c) Pig Market
(d) High Market
(e) None of the given options is true

Q10. Who was known as the “Father of Modern Economics”?
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Adam Smith
(d) George Loewenstein
(e) None of the given options is true

Q11. The cheque which is truncated during the course of clearing cycle is called __________
(a) Stale Cheque
(b) Mutilated Cheque
(c) Self Cheque
(d) Truncated Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true

Q12. Person named in the instrument to whom or to whose order the money is to be paid is known as-?
(a) Drawer
(b) Drawee
(c) Payer
(d) Payee
(e) Receivable

Q13. National Housing Bank (NHB), a wholly owned subsidiary of the central bank (RBI) was established in 1988 under the-
(a) National Housing Bank Act, 1987
(b) National Housing Bank Act, 1988
(c) National Housing Bank Act, 1986
(d) National Housing Bank Act, 1985
(e) None of the given options is true

Q14. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme was introduced under __________ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995.
(a) Section 25A
(b) Section 35A
(c) Section 45A
(d) Section 15A
(e) Section 55A

Q15. National Housing Bank (NHB), is an apex financial institution for housing, having headquarters in-?
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Hyderabad
(e) Kolkata











Solutions

1.D
2.C
3.D
4.B
5.D
6.D
7.C
8.C
9.B
10.C
11.D
12.D
13.A
14.B
15.B

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New Pattern Reasoning Questions for RRB PO Exam 2017

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information and answer the questions given below.

Eight family members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H like different colour viz. Red, Blue, Yellow, White, Green, Pink, Violet and Cream but not necessarily in same order. All of them are sitting around a rectangular table. Four persons sits on each middle side of rectangular table, while other four persons on the corner of table. All of them are facing towards the center.
There are three generation and two couple, in which H is daughter-in law of E. The one who likes Green color sits 3rd left of C. A who has no son, sits 2nd right of H. D who is grandfather of F, likes Violet color and sits at the corner. The one who likes Pink sits 2nd left of F. B who is just opposite to E who is sister in law of B, is not near to the one who likes Violet color.The one who likes Cream color is not neighbor of the one who likes Blue color. A is nephew of B who is brother of D who has only two children. H does not like yellow. The one who likes Red color sits 2nd left of the one who likes Yellow. The one who likes yellow sits opposite to F who does not like cream color. F sits 3rd right of G who likes blue color and G who is aunt of C, is just neighbor of the one who likes Yellow color. E is neighbor of A who does not sit adjacent to H. The one who likes Blue sits 2nd right of the one who likes Violet color.H has two children.

Q1. C likes which of the following color?
(a) White
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Yellow
(e) Can’t determine

Q2. A likes which of the following color?
(a) Blue
(b) White
(c) Yellow
(d) Red
(e) None of these

Q3. Who among following is the father of C?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) H
(d) D
(e) C

Q4. Who among following sits third to left of the one who is husband of H?
(a) B
(b) H
(c) D
(d) G
(e) None of these

Q5. Who among following sits opposite to F?
(a) D
(b) H
(c) B
(d) F
(e) C

Directions (6-10): Study the information and answer the following questions:
In a certain code language
"second day month long" is coded as “15M  15G  1Z  5M ”
"resign after her speech" is coded as “16X  5V  6V  5T ”
"gave berth after the" is coded as “8S  6V  5G  1E ”

Q6. What is the code for ‘road'?
(a) 15Z
(b) 10Z
(c) 15X
(d) 25Z
(e) None of these.

Q7. What is the code for ‘train'?
(a) 18R
(b) 18S
(c) 8R
(d) 28R
(e) None of these.

Q8. What is the code for ‘temple'?
(a) 5L
(b) 15O
(c) 5P
(d) 5O
(e) None of these.

Q9. What is the code for ‘minister'?
(a) 19V
(b) 9C
(c) 10V
(d) 9V
(e) None of these.

Q10. What is the code for ‘travel'?
(a) 18V
(b) 28V
(c) 18W
(d) 18X
(e) None of these.

Directions (11-15): These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions.
1 H # U J 9 B $ R 2 K * E L 8 G P A % T 3 C M V @ 7 D O S = 6 Z

Q11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a vowel and not immediately preceded by a number?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

Q12. Which of the following is exactly midway between the seventh element from the right end and the eighth element from the left end of the arrangement?
(a) 8
(b) P
(c) T
(d) 3
(e) None of these

Q13. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a numeral and also immediately followed by a consonant?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

Q14. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a numeral and also immediately preceded by a consonant?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these

Q15. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on above arrangement?
# 1 UB J $ K R * ?
(a) 8EP
(b) EKL
(c) GLP
(d) 8EG
(e) None of these












Solutions

1.D
2.E
3.A
4.A
5.E
6.A
7.A
8.D
9.D
10.A
11.B
12.B
13.A
14.A
15.D

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General Awareness Questions for NABARD Prelims Exam 2017

Q1. The 'Swachh Survekshan 2017' survey results were recently announced by former Urban Development Minister M Venkaiah Naidu. Which of the following city is the dirtiest city in India?

(a) Itawah

(b) Varanasi

(c) Hardoi

(d) Gonda

(e) Bhusawal

Q2. India has launched the GSLV-F09 carrying the GSAT-9 or the “South Asia” satellite from Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. What is the meaning of "S" in GSLV?

(a) Satellite

(b) Solutions

(c) Search

(d) Science

(e) Space

Q3. In order to Strengthen defence ties, India has opened its first private small arms manufacturing plant at- 

(a) Vadodara, Gujarat

(b) Malanpur, Madhya Pradesh

(c) Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh

(d) Darbhanga, Bihar

(e) None of the given options is true 

Q4. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has constituted Technical Committee to lay down Technical Standards for the performance of core services and other services in accordance with Regulation 14 of the IBBI (Information Utilities) Regulations, 2017. The committee will be Chaired by-

(a) Mr Anthony Lianzuala

(b) Shobana Kamineni

(c) Dr RB Barman 

(d) Yusra Mardini 

(e) Nita Ambani

Q5. Softbank has made its biggest investment in an Indian digital enterprise by sealing a funding round of Rs 9,000 crore ($1.4 billion) in mobile payments provider Paytm. Softbank is based in-

(a) Austria

(b) Japan

(c) Hong Kong

(d) China

(e) Russia

Q6. Which among the following banks has entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India for selling life insurance products of LIC?

(a) Kotak Mahindra Bank

(b) Axis Bank

(c) ICICI Bank

(d) State Bank of India

(e) Karnataka Bank

Q7. HDFC Life has announced the launch of an artificial intelligence-based application 'SPOK' that can automatically read, understand, categorise, prioritise and respond to customer emails sent to the private insurer. Where is the corporate office of HDFC life?

(a) Nainital

(b) Jaipur

(c) Mumbai

(d) New Delhi

(e) Ahmedabad

Q8. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on ______________ in accordance with the provisions of The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

(a) 01st April 2017

(b) 01st October 2013

(c) 01st November 2015

(d) 01st October 2016

(e) 01st September 2016

Q9. Which among the following state government has passed a resolution granting river Narmada the status of a living entity and committed itself to the protection of its legal rights recently?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh

(e) Madhya Pradesh

Q10. The NABARD (Amendment) Bill, 2017 was introduced by Minister of Finance, Mr Arun Jaitley. Who is the present  Chairman of NABARD?

(a) Dr Kshatrapati Shivaji

(b) Yaduvendra Mathur

(c) Urjit R Patel

(d) Ajay Tyagi

(e) Harsh Kumar Bhanwala

Q11. Reliance Corporate IT Park Ltd. (RCITPL) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with enterprise application software major SAP SE to launch ________________ solution for taxpayers.

(a) SUKHAD GST

(b) SUGAM GST

(c) SINEH GST

(d) SARAL GST

(e) None of the given options is true 

Q12. Who is present President of Germany?

(a) Manuel Valls

(b) John Howard 

(c) Frank-Walter Steinmeier

(d) Freundel Stuart

(e) David A. Granger

Q13. Alamatti Dam is in which of the following state? 

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Kerala

(d) Maharashtra

(e) Karnataka

Q14. Headquarters of International Monetary Fund is in which of the following city? 

(a) Basel

(b) Rome

(c) Guatemala City

(d) Washington D.C

(e) Perth

Q15. Which bank has launched a new trading platform called “Selfie” for customers in association with Geojit?

(a) Federal Bank

(b) IDFC Bank

(c) Kotak Mahindra Bank

(d) HDFC Bank

(e) ICICI Bank

Solutions

1.D
2.A
3.B
4.C
5.B
6.E
7.C
8.D
9.E
10.E
11.D
12.C
13.E
14.D
15.A

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English Questions For IBPS RRB PO Exam 2017

Directions (1-15): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

We live in the best of times. We have lifestyles that are ___(1), so many __(2) locations to vacation in, and technology that makes life magical. Yet, in these ___(3) times, people are bored. Nobody is __(4) about life.  In the past, generations of Indians were ____(5) up on a diet of inspiration. This led to the ___(6) golden era of phenomenal __(7) as well as happiness that attracted people from across the world.
In a new culture __(8) with measuring talent and ability, we often overlook the important role of inspiration. Inspiration awakens us to new possibilities by enabling us to ___(9) our __(10). Inspiration is a ___(11) feeling of elevation, a burst of energy, an awareness of __(12) possibilities. This happens when you think beyond yourself. People look for inspiration from outside. Wouldn't it be cool if on every single day you faced opportunities that could change your life? But every day is just another day. Inspiration does not find you. You've got to have the __(13) of the inspired even when you don't have the circumstances. It is in your hands! This may sound like a responsibility but it is super empowering. It puts the __(14) in your court.Think __(15) the universe. Reflect on the Permanent that runs through the impermanent world and exists beyond, in its pristine state.You will then experience a creative download. You will be successful in the world. You will gain happiness within. And you will grow spiritually.

Q1.
(a)moderate
(b)approval
(c)exciting
(d)choleric
(e)servile

Q2.
(a)Inexorable
(b)Utilitarian
(c)usual
(d)ordinary
(e)exotic

Q3.
(a)agitating
(b)exhilarating
(c)veneer
(d)unstimulating
(e)expats

Q4.
(a)bound
(b)dominated
(c)pensive
(d)thrilled
(e)examplate

Q5.
(a)called
(b)geared
(c)bought
(d)brought
(e)made

Q6.
(a)obscure
(b)glorious
(c)opprobrious
(d)exiguous
(e)notorious

Q7.
(a)clarity
(b)poverty
(c)diversity
(d)shrinkage
(e)prosperity

Q8.
(a)perspective
(b)related
(c)collate
(d)obsessed
(e)unconcened

Q9.
(a)prosaic
(b)transmit
(c)transform
(d)instigate
(e)transcend

Q10.
(a)direction
(b)limitation
(c)liberation
(d)focus
(e)extent

Q11.
(a)breathtaking
(b)cadge
(c)road breakers
(d)abysmal
(e)pastiche

Q12.
(a)surety
(b)forthcoming
(c)enlarged
(d)sensitive
(e)small

Q13.
(a)Tendentious
(b)altitude
(c)mind
(d)direction
(e)attitude

Q14.
(a)perception
(b)lawyer
(c)call
(d)ball
(e)game

Q15.
(a)over
(b)above
(c)beyond
(d)within
(e)proscribe












Solutions

1.C
2.E
3.B
4.D
5.D
6.B
7.E
8.D
9.E
10.B
11.A
12.C
13.E
14.D
15.C

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Banking Awareness Questions for NABARD Prelims Exam 2017

Q1. The FATF is an inter-governmental body. FATF stands for-
(a) Financial Action Task Forum
(b) Financial Action Task Fund
(c) Financial Action Time Force
(d) Financial Agency Task Force
(e) Financial Action Task Force

Q2. ___________ is used to describe small loans granted to low-income individuals that are excluded from the traditional banking system.
(a) Industries credit
(b) Microcredit
(c) Small credit
(d) Farmer credit
(e) None of the given options is true

Q3. In which among the following year FATF was established?
(a) 1978
(b) 1982
(c) 1995
(d) 1989
(e) 1962

Q4. Which year was declared as the 'International Year of Microcredit' by United Nations?
(a) 2002
(b) 2009
(c) 2005
(d) 2011
(e) 2000

Q5. The market in which long-term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as-
(a) Bullion Market
(b) Capital Market
(c) Bull Market
(d) Money Market
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. Which bank becomes first Bank in India to launch EMI facility on debit cards?
(a) Bandhan Bank
(b) SBI
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) ICICI Bank
(e) Axis Bank

Q7. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1935
(b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1930
(d) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1921
(e) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1942

Q8. Which of the following features fit for E-Banking-?
(a) Providing Ease in banking operations
(b) Stress on branchless banking
(c) Time Saving
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q9. If cheque is issued by a bank in the same city as the payee, the cheque will be called?
(a) Outstation Cheque
(b) Local Cheque
(c) At par Cheque
(d) Multicity Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true

Q10. CTS is a cheque clearing system undertaken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for faster clearing of cheques. What is the meaning of "T" in CTS?
(a) Truncation
(b) Transfer
(c) Travel
(d) Ticket
(e) Trust

Q11. The reserves which can act as liquidity buffer for commercial banks during crisis times are-
(a) Repo Rate
(b) CRR
(c) SLR
(d) Bank Rate
(e) Both (b) and (c)

Q12. Money Laundering is-
(a) Conversion of money which is illegally obtained
(b) Conversion of money which is legally obtained
(c) All converted money
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the given options is true

Q13. "Good People to grow with" is the slogan of-
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Punjab National Bank
(c) Central Bank of India
(d) Bank of India
(e) Indian Overseas Bank

Q14. Usha Ananthasubramanian is the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of-
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Allahabad Bank
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Punjab National Bank
(e) Canara Bank

Q15. Which Indian Bank's logo contains image of "Dog"-
(a) Vijaya Bank
(b) Dena Bank
(c) Syndicate Bank
(d) Indian Bank
(e) HDFC Bank












 Solutions

1.E
2.B
3.D
4.C
5.B
6.D
7.B
8.D
9.B
10.A
11.E
12.A
13.E
14.B
15.C

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English Questions For NABARD Grade-A Exam 2017

Direction ( 1-15) : In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

What makes paper money so valuable? After all, in (1) to commodity money like gold and silver (2)  have been in use (3) centuries, these printed pieces of paper (4) very little intrinsic value. Yet they get (5)for valuable goods every day. In fact, the sale of almost any good today (6)money being accepted (7) the seller. The usual answer (8) by economists to explain this paradox has to do with the coercive (9)of government. (10)the government mandates that citizens must accept paper money issued by it in any transaction, they argue, paper money attains value. It is (11) that other economists doubt (12) people will accept paper currency as money, even if it is the government that forces them to use it. historically, paper currencies became (13) only (14) they were initially backed by (15) like gold and silver.

Q1.
(a)combining
(b)talking
(c)relation
(d) contrast
(e)none of these

Q2.
(a)which
(b)who
(c)it
(d)than
(e) none of these

Q3.
(a)since
(b)for
(c)during
(d)in
(e) none of these

Q4.
(a)has
(b)had
(c)have
(d)is
(e)none of these

Q5.
(a)formed
(b)exchanged
(c)called
(d)issued
(e)none of these

Q6.
(a)involves
(b)initiate
(c)create
(d)invite
(e)none of these

Q7.
(a)to
(b)by
(c)in
(d)from
(e)none of these

Q8.
(a)assumed
(b)related
(c)exclaimed
(d)provided
(e)none of these

Q9.
(a)ambition
(b)thought
(c)power
(d)nature
(e)none of these

Q10.
(a)starting
(b)at
(c)for
(d)since
(e)none of these

Q11.
(a)noteworthy
(b)repudiate
(c)admirable
(d)ignorable
(e)none of these

Q12.
(a)weather
(b)as
(c)whether
(d)because
(e)none of these

Q13.
(a)acceptable
(b)commitment
(c)avoidable
(d)durable
(e)none of these

Q14.
(a)since
(b)due
(c)being
(d)because
(e)none of these

Q15.
(a)pillars
(b)commodities
(c)material
(d)seller
(e)none of these











 Solutions

1.D
2.A
3.B
4.C
5.B
6.A
7.B
8.D
9.C
10.D
11.D
12.C
13.A
14.D
15.B

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General Awareness Questions for NABARD Prelims Exam 2017

Q1. India’s first and longest ropeway to connect Mumbai with the famous Island in the Arabian Sea is planned to be constructed by the Mumbai Port Trust. What is the name of that Island?
(a) Majuli Island
(b) Havelock Island
(c) Barren Island
(d) Elephanta Island
(e) Diu Island

Q2. The Indian Navy has begun a joint maritime exercise with the French Navy at the Mediterranean Sea to further deepen combat coordination between the two navies. The Joint exercise is named as ____________.
(a) PARAKRAM
(b) VARUNA
(c) KAUSHAL
(d) GRAMANA
(e) SHAKTI

Q3. The White House has recently named a retired Marine major general ______________ as the new Director of the Secret Service.
(a) Sandish Machol
(b) Sebastian Andrew
(c) Randolph Ailes
(d) Johnnefer Sout
(e) Harrynara Dahol

Q4. The World Intellectual Property Day is celebrated globally on __________.
(a) March 28
(b) March 21
(c) April 19
(d) April 28
(e) April 26

Q5. An Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) in India is associated with-
(a) UCPDC
(b) DICGC
(c) NPA
(d) Home Loan
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. Which of the following is mainly used by the banks in order to meet their temporary requirement of Cash on a daily basis?
(a) Commercial Paper
(b) Certificate of Deposit
(c) Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO)
(d) Call Money
(e) None of the given options is true

Q7. ___________ is a voluntary market body for the bond, money and derivatives markets.
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) IRDAI
(d) FIMMDA
(e) UIDAI

Q8. Private sector lender Yes Bank announced the alliance with which of the following e-commerce company under which the bank will offer conditionally approved loans to the latter’s existing customers?
(a) Paisabazaar.com
(b) Naptol.com
(c) Askbazar.com
(d) Bookmyshow.com
(e) None of the given options is true

Q9. Northeast India's largest Information Technology (IT) hub was opened recently in _____________ to boost employment and e-governance besides to export software technology.
(a) Assam
(b) Tripura
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
(e) Sikkim

Q10. Name the youngest chancellor of any university in the nation who has bagged Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar International Foundation award for excellent performance in the field of education.
(a) Sankalp Joshi
(b) Manish Subrato
(c) Mangalam S Sen
(d) Dileep K Nair
(e) Mahesh K Rawat

Q11. Name the country that will host the 18th World Road Meeting (WRM 2017) in November 2017 according to the International Road Federation (IRF).
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Indonesia
(e) Pakistan

Q12. Who is present President of Afghanistan?
(a) Ilham Aliyev
(b) Mohammad Ashraf Ghani
(c) Milos Zeman
(d) Abdelaziz Bouteflika
(e) Abdul Hamid

Q13. Harangi Dam is in which of the following state?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Karnataka

Q14. Headquarter of Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons(OPCW) is in which of the following city?
(a) Colombo, Sri Lanka
(b) Djibouti City
(c) Washington, D.C., USA
(d) The Hague, Netherlands
(e) Geneva, Switzerland

Q15. Name the country that has become the first to open an honorary consulate office in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City).
(a) Austria
(b) Belgium
(c) Russia
(d) France
(e) Japan











Solutions

1.D
2.B
3.C
4.E
5.C
6.D
7.D
8.A
9.B
10.D
11.A
12.B
13.E
14.D
15.B

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Quantitative Aptitude Questions for NABARD Grade A 2017

Directions (1-5): In each of these questions, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question along with information given in the statements and decide the information in which of the statement(s) is/are necessary and sufficient to answer the question.

Q1. In how many days can the work be completed by A, B and C together?
(I) A and B together can complete the work in 6 days.
(II) B and C together can complete the work in 15/4 days.
(III) A and C together can complete the work in 10/3 days.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Any one of the three
(e) All the three statements are necessary to answer the question.

Q2. What is the cost of painting the two adjacent walls of a hall which has no windows or doors?
(I) The area of the hall is 24 sq. metres.
(II) The breadth, length and the height of the hall are in the ratio of 4 : 6 : 5 respectively.
(III) Area of one wall is 30 square metres.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Either I or III
(e) Data inadequate

Q3. What is the total compound interest earned at the end of the three years?
(I) Simple interest earned on that amount at the same rate and period is Rs. 4,500
(II) The rate of interest is 10 percent per annum
(III) Compound interest for three years is more than the simple interest for that period by Rs. 465.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) Any two of the three
(e) Either II or III only

Q4. What is the percent profit earned by the shopkeeper on selling the articles in his shop?
(I) Labelled price of the articles sold was 130% of the cost price.
(II) Cost price of each article was Rs. 550.
(III) A discount of 10% on labelled price was offered.
(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only II and III
(e) Questions cannot be answered even with the information given in all the three statements.

Q5. What is the average salary of 15 employees?
(I) Average salary of 7 Clerical cadre (out of the 15 employees) employees is Rs. 8,500.
(II) Average salary of 5 officer cadre (out of the 15 employees) employees is Rs. 10,000.
(III) Average salary of remaining 3 employees (out of the 15 employees) is Rs. 2,500.
(a) None
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Only III
(e) All the three statements are necessary to answer the question

Directions (6-10): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the question and both the statements and

Give answer (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (d) if the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q6. Train ‘A’ running at a certain speed crosses another train ‘B’ running at a certain speed in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. What is the length of train ‘B’?
I. The length of both the trains together is 450 metres.
II. Train ‘A’ is slower than train ‘B’.

Q7. Area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a right angled triangle. What is the length of the rectangle?
I. The base of the triangle is 40 cms.
II. The height of the triangle is 50 cms.

Q8. What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years?
I. The interest after one year was Rs. 100/- and the sum was Rs. 1,000/-.
II. The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs. 1,000/- at the end of two years was Rs. 10/-.

Q9. What is the two digit number where the digit at the unit place is smaller?
I. The difference between the two digits is 5.
II. The sum of the two digits is 7.

Q10. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
I. It takes 2 hours to cover distance between A and B down streams.
II. It takes 4 hours to cover distance between A and B up streams.












Solutions

1.E
2.E
3.D
4.A
5.E
6.D
7.D
8.C
9.E
10.D

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General Awareness Questions for NABARD Prelims Exam 2017

Q1. Panchayati Raj Diwas was celebrated recently (April 24) across India. Which of the following Gram Panchayat was the first to become open defecation free (ODF) in the country?
(a) Mander Gram Panchayat
(b) Akodara Gram Panchayat
(c) Kuther Gram Panchayat
(d) Gyanwath Gram Panchayat
(e) Shakul Gram Panchayat

Q2. Name the Bollywood film that has recently won the best film honour at the Hong Kong International Film Festival.
(a) Newton
(b) Mashaal
(c) Lunch Box
(d) Aligarh
(e) Bahubali

Q3. World Book and Copyright Day (WBCD) is observed globally on __________.
(a) 24 April
(b) 23 April
(c) 21 April
(d) 21 March
(e) 20 March

Q4. Name the player who has recently won the Men's Singles title of Monte Carlo Masters Tennis Tournament 2017.
(a) Andy Murray
(b) Roger Federer
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Stan Wawrinka
(e) Rafael Nadal

Q5. What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
(a) It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country.
(b) It is the Cost production of all final goods and services made in the country.
(c) It is the Cost services of all final goods and services made in the country.
(d) It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year.
(e) None of the given options is true

Q6. Security Paper Mill (SPM) located at-
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Bangaluru
(d) Hoshangabad
(e) New Delhi

Q7. What is the meaning of Mixed economy?
(a) Co-existence of small and large industries
(b) Co-existence of public and private industries
(c) Co-existence of the rich and poor
(d) Promoting both agriculture and industries in the economy
(e) None of the given options is true

Q8. Various Sports including Cricket and Sambo has been removed from the programme list in order to remove the burden from the organisers of the 2018 Asian Games. The Asian Games 2018 will be held in _________.
(a) Jakarta
(b) Padang
(c) Palembang
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) Both (a) and b)

Q9. Name the player/s who is/are in the winners at the second Golf Industry Association (GIA) Awards 2017.
(a) SSP Chawrasia
(b) Aditi Ashok
(c) Ali Sher
(d) All of the above
(e) Only (a) and (b)

Q10. The National Health Mission (NHM) in which of the Indian state has launched a mobile-based application named 'Kilkari' to create awareness among pregnant women.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) Bihar

Q11. Name the Veteran actress who has received the lifetime achievement award at the 80th Bengal Film Journalists' Association (BFJA) awards 2017.
(a) Suchitra Sen
(b) Rituparna Sengupta
(c) Shahana Goswami
(d) Nandita Das
(e) Moushumi Chatterjee

Q12. Who is the present Governor of West Bengal?
(a) Keshari Nath Tripathi
(b) Shriniwas Dadasaheb Patil
(c) Chennamaneni Vidyasagar Rao
(d) Padmanabha Balakrishna Acharya
(e) Tathagata Roy

Q13. Who is current Union Tribal Minister in Narendra Modi government?
(a) Narendra Singh Tomar
(b) Kalraj Mishra
(c) Jual Oram
(d) Prakash Javadekar
(e) Harsimrat Kaur Badal

Q14. The capital of Austria is?
(a) Tehran
(b) Vienna
(c) Canberra
(d) Thimphu
(e) Brussels

Q15. Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) was formed after corporatisation of nine units including four mints, four presses and one paper mill which were earlier functioning under the Ministry of Finance. The Company was incorporated on-
(a) 13th January 2006
(b) 01st April 2002
(c) 18th March 2004
(d) 02nd October 2008
(e) 15th September 1960











Solutions

1.C
2.A
3.B
4.E
5.D
6.D
7.B
8.D
9.D
10.C
11.E
12.A
13.C
14.B
15.A

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English Questions For NABARD Grade-A Exam 2017

Directions (1-10): In the following questions, two sentences are given. There may be an error in the sentence(s). Mark your answer accordingly from the given options.

Q1.
I. When he returned from America, he informed me that he had come here to do urgent work.
II. I bought a pair of trousers yesterday.
(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q2.
I. It is nothing else but fatigue.
II. She seldom or ever has sweet talks with her son.
(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q3.
I .I read the proof yesterday meticulously at home.
II. The petrol price hike issue has been debated more hotly than the urea scam.
(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q4.
I. You will not be allowed to go anywhere else to play outdoor games.
II. She behaved in a cowardly manner before the headmaster and hesitated to do the work
(a)if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q5.
I. The slaughter of pandas for their pelts have caused panda population to decline Drastically.
II. Neither she nor I am going to the festival.
(a)if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q6.
I. He is very rich.
II. The match became much interesting.
(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q7.
I. The hare ran more fast than the dog.
II. He wrote last year a book.
(a)if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q8.
I. The peasantry have always stood as rock stars for the development of a country.
II. He gave me a five-rupees note and asked me to get him a few cigarettes.
(a)if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences;
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q9.
I. School authorities are encouraging its students to drink soya milk.
II. Children are quick to pick up a new language.
(a)if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence.

Q10.
I. The prime minister along with his attendants are coming tomorrow to address the sensational and controversial issues of terrorism.
II. If a customer buys a burger, they have to buy a parking ticket.
(a)if there is an error only in the first sentence;
(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;
(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and
(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.
(e) If there are more than two errors in either of the sentence

Directions (11-15):  In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. The numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The impact of education on rural life has remained consistent _______(11) colonial days. When a village boy did well at school, __________(12) to shift to a nearby town. That is where he could expect his talent to________(13). Gradually, villages
became the supplier of talent to the city. Only those __________(14) on land stayed back. With the passage of time, land got sub-divided into smaller pieces, making agriculture unattractive. In recent times, investments made land more productive, but ________(15). Work opportunities in villages in non-agricultural pursuits remained scarce, and, in the recent past, job growth has come to a standstill.

Q11.
(a) for
(b) since
(c) starting
(d) past the
(e) None of these

Q12.
(a) he were expected
(b) they were made
(c) he was thinking
(d) he was expected
(e) None of these

Q13.
(a) being recognise
(b) be recognised.
(c) be recognise
(d) shall be recognised
(e) None of these

Q14.
(a) they were dependent
(b) which was dependent
(c) who were dependent
(d) who was dependent
(e) None of these

Q15.
(a) real income declined.
(b) increased
(c) actual income depraved
(d) real income shooted
(e) None of these











Solutions

1.D
2.B
3.A
4.D
5.A
6.B
7.C
8.B
9.A
10.C
11.B
12.D
13.B
14.C
15.A

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New Pattern Reasoning Questions for NICL AO Mains Exam

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at the four corners of the square table while other four sit in the middle of each of four sides. The one who sits at the four corners face the center and those who sit in the middle of the sides face outward. All of them are reading different magazine, viz MacLife, Linux, Esquire, Wizard, Forbes, Muse, Fortune and Money.
F sits third to left of the one who reads Linux magazine. The one who reads Linux magazine faces outward. Only two friends sit between F and A. The one who reads MacLife magazine sits on the immediate right of A. The one who reads Forbes magazine sits second to right of B, who is not immediate neighbor of A or F.B does not read Linux magazine. Only one friend sits between H and one who reads Forbes magazine. E sits on the immediate left of the one who reads Wizard magazine. B does not read Wizard magazine. D reads Esquire magazine but he is not immediate neighbor of H. The one who reads Money magazine is an immediate neighbor of D. The one who reads Muse magazine is an immediate neighbor of C. C is an immediate neighbor of both E and the one who reads Money magazine.

Q1.Who among following reads Muse magazine?
(a) E
(b) A
(c) H
(d) G
(e) F

Q2. Who among following sits opposite to D?
(a) G
(b) F
(c) C
(d) B
(e) A

Q3. Who among following sits second to right of D?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) C
(d) B
(e) G

Q4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) A
(b) H
(c) B
(d) E
(e) F

Q5. Who among following reads Maclife magazine?
(a) E
(b) B
(c) F
(d) A
(e) H

Directions (6-8): Question consists of five statements followed by five conclusions. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions does not logically follow from the given statements using all statements together.

Q6. Statements:
Some shirt is pant. All pant is cloth. No cloth is blazer. All jeans is blazer. Some jeans is cap.
Conclusions:
(a) Some shirt is cloth.
(b) Some shirt is not blazer.
(c) No pant is blazer.
(d) Some cap is blazer.
(e) None of these

Q7. Statements:
All jan is feb. Some jan is march. All march is april. No march is june. Some june is july.
Conclusions:
 (a) Some jan is april.
(b) Some march is feb.
(c) Some april is not june.
(d) Some july is april.
(e) None of these

Q8. Statements:
Some nike is lava. Some lava is rebook. Some rebook is nokia. Some nokia is samsung. Some samsung is xiomi.
Conclusions:
 (a) Some lava is nike.
(b) Some xiomi is samsung.
(c) Some nokia is lava.
(d) Some samsung is nokia.
(e) None of these

Directions (9-10): In the questions below are given some conclusions followed by five set of statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions either definitely or possibly. Assume the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Q9. Conclusions:
 Some yellow is white. Some black is not white.
Statements:
(a) Some back is green. No green is white. Some white is pink. All pink is yellow. No yellow is violet.
(b) Some black is white. All white is green. No green is pink. Some pink is yellow. All yellow is violet.
(c) Some pink is yellow. All yellow is violet. No violet is black. Some black is white. All white is green.
(d) Some pink is violet. All violet is yellow. No yellow is black. All black is white. Some black is green.
(e) None of these.

Q10. Conclusions:
Some green is air. Some air is sky.
Statements:
(a) Some sky is air. All air is blue. Some blue is tree. All tree is green. Some tree is carbon.
(b) Some sky is tree. All tree is green. Some green is carbon. All carbon is blue. Some blue is air.
(c) Some sky is carbon. All carbon is blue. Some blue is air. All air is tree. Some tree is green.
(d) All sky is blue. Some sky is air. Some air is tree. All tree is green. Some green is carbon.
(e) None of these.

Directions (11-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’
(ii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’
(iii) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’

Q11. Which of the following means ‘M is niece of N’?
(a) M × R – N
(b) N ÷ J + M ÷ D
(c) N ÷ J + M
(d) N × J – M
(e) None of these

Q12. Which of the following means ‘F is grandson of B’?
(a) B + J – F
(b) B – J + F
(c) B × T – F
(d) B ÷ T + F
(e) None of these

Q13. How is K related to M is the expression ‘B + K ÷ T × M’?
(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Son or daughter
(d) mother
(e) Sister

Q14. Sulekha walked 2m South, turned her right and walked half a meter, then turned North and walked 5m, then she turned East and walked 41/2 m. How far is she from the starting point?
(a) 5 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 3m
(d) 6 m
(e) 7m

Q15. Aditi walks 10m straight ahead towards East and then she turned right to walk 10m. Then every time turning to her left she walks 5m, 15m and 15 m, respectively. How far is she from the starting point?
(a) 10m
(b) 15 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 25 m
(e) 5m

Solutions

1.A

2.E

3.C

4.A

5.E

6.E

7.D

8.C

9.A

10.D

11.B

12.E

13.E

14.A

15.E

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